Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 2019 (Set A) with Answers

Looking for the Bihar STET Computer Science question paper 2019? Here is the complete Paper II Computer Science paper of the exam held on 2019 (Set A), with the correct answer and a short explanation for every question. All 150 questions are given as text, so you can practise them online, revise topic by topic and get a feel for the real exam pattern.

Note: These answers were prepared and checked by the ExamYaari team. They are not the official BSEB answer key. If you think an answer is wrong, tell us in the comments. This is the Bihar STET 2019 Computer Science paper (Paper II, Second Sitting, Subject Code 207, Set A, 2:00–4:30 PM). The exam date is not printed on the question booklet.

Table of Contents

• Exam Overview
• Topic-wise Analysis
• Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills (Q1–50)
• Part II: Computer Science (Q51–150)
• More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers
• FAQs

Bihar STET Computer Science 2019: Exam Overview

Exam	Bihar STET 2019 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)
Conducting Body	Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB)
Paper	Paper II, Computer Science (Subject Code 207)
Exam Date	2019
Shift / Time	Set A (2:00 PM – 4:30 PM)
Total Questions	150 MCQs
Part 1	Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills: Q1–50
Part 2	Part II: Computer Science: Q51–150

Topic-wise Analysis of Computer Science Questions

Here is roughly how the 100 Computer Science questions in this paper are spread across the syllabus. Use it to decide which topics to revise first.

Topic	No. of Questions
MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)	22
Computer Networks & Internet	15
Data Structures & Algorithms	14
Computer Fundamentals & History	8
Digital Electronics & COA	8
E-commerce & IT Fundamentals	8
Database & SQL	7
Theory of Computation	6
Operating System	4
OOP Concepts	4
Other Topics	3
Web Technology & HTML	1

Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills (Q1–50)

Q1. Among the following, whom did K. K. Birla Foundation announce on May 16, 2019 as the winner of the 28th Bihari Puraskar?

(A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
(B) Leeladhar Jagudi
(C) Keerti Parihar
(D) None of them

Answer: (A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
Explanation: Manisha Kulshreshtha was chosen for the 28th Bihari Puraskar for her Hindi novel ‘Swapnapash’.

Q2. The 54th Jnanpith Award was given to which English writer in New Delhi on June 12, 2019?

(A) Sunil Shrivastava
(B) Amitav Ghosh
(C) Yuvraj Bhattarai
(D) Leeladhar Jagudi

Answer: (B) Amitav Ghosh
Explanation: Amitav Ghosh became the first English-language writer to receive the Jnanpith Award (54th, 2018).

Q3. Among the following, who is the Chief Election Commissioner of India at present (2019)?

(A) Ashok Lavasa
(B) Sunil Arora
(C) Sushil Chandra
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Sunil Arora
Explanation: Sunil Arora was the Chief Election Commissioner from December 2018 to April 2021.

Q4. The minimum pension provided by the Central Government from May 31, 2019 to all small and marginal farmers (SMF) on attaining the age of 60 years is

(A) Rs. 2000 per month
(B) Rs. 3000 per month
(C) Rs. 4000 per month
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Rs. 3000 per month
Explanation: Under the PM Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana, small and marginal farmers get a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after age 60.

Q5. The winner of the World Mixed Team Badminton Championship, Sudirman Cup 2019, is

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) China
Explanation: China beat Japan 3–0 in the 2019 Sudirman Cup final at Nanning.

Q6. A number when divided by 52 gives remainder 45. If the same number is divided by 13, the remainder will be

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 7

Answer: (B) 6
Explanation: 52 is a multiple of 13, so the remainder is 45 mod 13 = 6.

Q7. Which of the following is the largest number? √2, ∛3, ∜4, ⁶√6

(A) √2
(B) ∛3
(C) ∜4
(D) ⁶√6

Answer: (B) ∛3
Explanation: Raise all to the 12th power: √2 → 64, ∛3 → 81, ∜4 → 64, ⁶√6 → 36. So ∛3 is the largest.

Q8. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their LCM is 120. The sum of the numbers is

(A) 70
(B) 35
(C) 140
(D) 105

Answer: (A) 70
Explanation: Numbers are 3x and 4x with LCM 12x = 120, so x = 10; the numbers are 30 and 40, and their sum is 70.

Q9. When 60 is subtracted from 60% of a number, the result is 60. The number is

(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 180
(D) 200

Answer: (D) 200
Explanation: 0.6x − 60 = 60 gives 0.6x = 120, so x = 200.

Q10. If the cost price of 15 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books, the loss per cent is

(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 25

Answer: (D) 25
Explanation: Let CP of one book = 1. CP of 20 books = 20, SP of 20 books = 15. Loss = 5/20 × 100 = 25%.

Q11. The average of 20 numbers is 15 and the average of the first five numbers is 12. The average of the rest is

(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 13

Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: Total = 300; first five = 60; remaining 15 numbers total 240, so their average is 16.

Q12. If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 7 and C : D = 8 : 9, then A : D is equal to

(A) 3 : 7
(B) 7 : 3
(C) 21 : 10
(D) 10 : 21

Answer: (D) 10 : 21
Explanation: A : D = (3 × 5 × 8) : (4 × 7 × 9) = 120 : 252 = 10 : 21.

Q13. The perimeter of a rectangle is 160 metre, and the difference of its two sides is 48 metre. Find the side of a square whose area is equal to the area of this rectangle.

(A) 32 m
(B) 8 m
(C) 4 m
(D) 16 m

Answer: (A) 32 m
Explanation: l + b = 80 and l − b = 48, so l = 64 and b = 16. Area = 1024 m², and the square’s side is √1024 = 32 m.

Q14. A man walking at the rate of 5 km/hr crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the bridge (in metres) is

(A) 600
(B) 750
(C) 1000
(D) 1250

Answer: (D) 1250
Explanation: Distance = 5 km/h × 1/4 h = 1.25 km = 1250 m.

Q15. If A is an acute angle and cot A + cosec A = 3, then the value of sin A is

(A) 1
(B) 4/5
(C) 3/5
(D) 0

Answer: (C) 3/5
Explanation: (1 + cos A)/sin A = cot(A/2) = 3, so tan(A/2) = 1/3. Then sin A = 2t/(1 + t²) = (2/3)/(10/9) = 3/5.

Q16. Pointing towards Garima, Rakesh said, “Her father is the only son of my father.” How is Rakesh related to Garima?

(A) Brother
(B) Father
(C) Uncle
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Father
Explanation: The only son of Rakesh’s father is Rakesh himself, so Rakesh is Garima’s father.

Q17. Samir went 15 m to the west from his house, then turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned east and walked 25 m, and finally turning left covered 20 m. How far was he from his house?

(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 40 m
(D) 80 m

Answer: (B) 10 m
Explanation: West 15, south 20, east 25, north 20: the north–south moves cancel and he ends 25 − 15 = 10 m east of his house.

Q18. If DEEP is coded in a symbolic language as 60 and RABIT as 100, then how will HAIR be coded?

(A) 27
(B) 72
(C) 90
(D) 160

Answer: (B) 72
Explanation: Code = 2 × sum of letter positions: DEEP = 2 × 30 = 60, RABIT = 2 × 50 = 100, HAIR = 2 × (8 + 1 + 9 + 18) = 72.

Q19. If ‘×’ means ‘−’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘÷’, then 8 ÷ 4 × 2 − 4 + 2 = ?

(A) 2
(B) 28
(C) 32
(D) 36

Answer: (C) 32
Explanation: The expression becomes 8 × 4 − 2 + 4 ÷ 2 = 32 − 2 + 2 = 32.

Q20. Find the missing number in the following figure: a circle divided into six sectors containing 8, 27, 64, 125, 216 and ?

(A) 4
(B) 305
(C) 343
(D) 729

Answer: (C) 343
Explanation: The numbers are cubes: 2³, 3³, 4³, 5³, 6³, so the missing number is 7³ = 343.

Q21. Which option will take the place of (?) in the following letter pattern? JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ?

(A) OEP
(B) NEO
(C) MEN
(D) PFQ

Answer: (B) NEO
Explanation: Each letter moves forward by one: J→K→L→M→N, A→B→C→D→E, K→L→M→N→O, giving NEO.

Q22. Which number will take the place of (?) in the following number series? 16, 23, 31, 40, 50, 61, ?

(A) 73
(B) 77
(C) 83
(D) 81

Answer: (A) 73
Explanation: The differences are 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, so the next is 61 + 12 = 73.

Q23. How many triangles are there in the following figure? [Figure: a triangle with a line drawn from each vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side, so all three lines meet at one interior point.]

(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 7

Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: A triangle divided by its three medians has 6 small triangles, 6 triangles made of two parts, 3 made of three parts and the whole triangle: 6 + 6 + 3 + 1 = 16.

Q24. If ‘Sand’ is coded as ‘Brick’, ‘Brick’ as ‘House’, ‘House’ as ‘Temple’, ‘Temple’ as ‘Palace’, then where do you worship?

(A) Palace
(B) Temple
(C) Brick
(D) House

Answer: (A) Palace
Explanation: Worship happens in a temple, and in this code ‘Temple’ is called ‘Palace’.

Q25. If LIGHT is coded in a symbolic language as JGEFR, then how will SHORT be coded in that language?

(A) FQMPR
(B) QFMPR
(C) FQMRP
(D) QFMRP

Answer: (B) QFMPR
Explanation: Each letter moves two places back (L→J, I→G, …), so SHORT becomes QFMPR.

Q26. Who said, “The Principles (Directive Principles) should be made the basis of all the future legislation”?

(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. B. N. Rau
(D) Dr. Zakir Hussain

Answer: (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar said this in the Constituent Assembly about the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q27. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system?

(A) Planets
(B) Comets
(C) Asteroids
(D) Nebulae

Answer: (D) Nebulae
Explanation: Nebulae are huge clouds of gas and dust in interstellar space, outside the solar system.

Q28. The plants which grow on saline soil are known as

(A) xerophytes
(B) hydrophytes
(C) succulents
(D) halophytes

Answer: (D) halophytes
Explanation: Halophytes (e.g. mangroves) are adapted to salty soil and water.

Q29. Which of the following colours of light undergoes the least deviation while passing through a prism?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue

Answer: (A) Red
Explanation: Red has the longest wavelength and the lowest refractive index in glass, so it deviates least.

Q30. The world’s largest telescope is in which country?

(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) United States of America

Answer: (C) China
Explanation: China’s FAST (Five-hundred-metre Aperture Spherical Telescope) in Guizhou is the world’s largest single-dish radio telescope.

Q31. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on

(A) 5 June
(B) 5 July
(C) 5 May
(D) 5 March

Answer: (A) 5 June
Explanation: World Environment Day has been observed on 5 June every year since 1974.

Q32. Due to which of the following can we not see clearly during a fog?

(A) Scattering of light
(B) Reflection
(C) Internal reflection
(D) Refraction

Answer: (A) Scattering of light
Explanation: Fog droplets scatter light in all directions, which reduces visibility.

Q33. Which of the following represents a billion characters?

(A) Kilobytes
(B) Gigabytes
(C) Terabytes
(D) Megabytes

Answer: (B) Gigabytes
Explanation: One character takes one byte, and a billion (10⁹) bytes is about one gigabyte.

Q34. What was the early capital of Magadh?

(A) Vaishali
(B) Champa
(C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
(D) Pataliputra

Answer: (C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
Explanation: Rajgriha (Girivraja) was the first capital of Magadha; the capital later moved to Pataliputra.

Q35. Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environment friendly?

(A) Biogas
(B) Ethanol
(C) CNG
(D) Hydrogen

Answer: (D) Hydrogen
Explanation: Burning hydrogen produces only water, with no carbon emissions.

Q36. The ‘World Wetlands Day’ is celebrated on which day?

(A) 2nd March
(B) 22nd March
(C) 2nd February
(D) 22nd May

Answer: (C) 2nd February
Explanation: World Wetlands Day is on 2 February, the anniversary of the 1971 Ramsar Convention.

Q37. “Durand Cup” is associated with which of the following games?

(A) Polo
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey

Answer: (B) Football
Explanation: The Durand Cup (started 1888) is one of the oldest football tournaments in the world.

Q38. “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” Who said?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave this famous slogan.

Q39. In the Constitution of India, the Right to Free and Compulsory Elementary Education is included in the section on

(A) Human Rights
(B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
Explanation: The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right.

Q40. The number of chromosomes in the human body is

(A) 48
(B) 46
(C) 44
(D) 42

Answer: (B) 46
Explanation: Human body cells have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).

Q41. The Speaker of Lok Sabha in India is elected by the

(A) Council of Ministers
(B) All Speakers of State Legislative Assemblies
(C) Members of Lok Sabha
(D) Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (C) Members of Lok Sabha
Explanation: Under Article 93, the Lok Sabha elects its Speaker from among its own members.

Q42. Which of the following is a major source of oceanic salinity?

(A) Land
(B) Rivers
(C) Ash from volcanoes
(D) Wind

Answer: (B) Rivers
Explanation: Rivers carry dissolved salts weathered from rocks on land into the oceans.

Q43. Which strait connects the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean?

(A) Malacca
(B) Bosporus
(C) Hormuz
(D) Bab-el-Mandeb

Answer: (D) Bab-el-Mandeb
Explanation: The Bab-el-Mandeb strait links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean. (Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.)

Q44. Which of the following is a Harappan port?

(A) Mahasthangarh
(B) Nagapattanam
(C) Lothal
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Lothal
Explanation: Lothal in Gujarat had a dockyard and was an important port of the Harappan civilisation.

Q45. At present (2019) the Constitution of India comprises

(A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles, 25 Parts and 8 Schedules
(C) 372 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
Explanation: The original Constitution had 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 8 Schedules; by 2019 it had 25 Parts and 12 Schedules, and about 465 Articles counting inserted ones such as 21A.

Q46. Which of the following is not used in making solar cells?

(A) Silicon
(B) Platinum
(C) Gallium
(D) Germanium

Answer: (B) Platinum
Explanation: Solar cells use semiconductors such as silicon, gallium (arsenide) and germanium. Platinum is a metal, not a semiconductor.

Q47. Which Article of the Constitution of India is related to Right to Equality before law?

(A) Article 15
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17

Answer: (B) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.

Q48. The brain of any computer is

(A) ALU
(B) CPU
(C) Memory
(D) Control Unit (CU)

Answer: (B) CPU
Explanation: The CPU processes all instructions and controls the other parts, so it is called the brain of the computer.

Q49. At constant temperature, the speed of sound is maximum in which of the following gases?

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) In all these gases equal

Answer: (A) Hydrogen
Explanation: At a given temperature the speed of sound is inversely proportional to √(molar mass); hydrogen is the lightest gas, so sound travels fastest in it.

Q50. ‘National Emergency’ may be declared by the President of India in line with

(A) Article 352
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 395

Answer: (A) Article 352
Explanation: Article 352 deals with a national emergency on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

Part II: Computer Science (Q51–150)

Q51. UNIVAC is

(A) Universal Automatic Computer
(B) Universal Array Computer
(C) Unique Automatic Computer
(D) Unvalued Automatic Computer

Answer: (A) Universal Automatic Computer
Explanation: UNIVAC = UNIVersal Automatic Computer, the first commercial computer in the USA (1951).

Q52. The basic operations performed by a computer are

(A) Arithmetic operation
(B) Logical operation
(C) Storage and relative
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: A computer performs arithmetic, logical and storage/retrieval operations.

Q53. Who is the inventor of the “Difference Engine”?

(A) Alan Turing
(B) Charles Babbage
(C) Seymour Cray
(D) Augusta Ada

Answer: (B) Charles Babbage
Explanation: Charles Babbage designed the Difference Engine in the 1820s to compute mathematical tables.

Q54. Microprocessors as switching devices are used in which generation of computers?

(A) First Generation
(B) Second Generation
(C) Third Generation
(D) Fourth Generation

Answer: (D) Fourth Generation
Explanation: Fourth-generation computers (from 1971) use microprocessors (VLSI chips).

Q55. DOS stands for

(A) Disk Operating System
(B) Disk Operating Session
(C) Digital Operating System
(D) Digital Open System

Answer: (A) Disk Operating System
Explanation: DOS = Disk Operating System, e.g. MS-DOS.

Q56. ASCII and EBCDIC are the popular character coding systems. What does EBCDIC stand for?

(A) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
(B) Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
(C) Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
(D) Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code

Answer: (A) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Explanation: EBCDIC = Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code, an 8-bit code used on IBM mainframes.

Q57. Who is the father of Computer?

(A) Alan Turing
(B) Seymour Cray
(C) Augusta Ada
(D) Charles Babbage

Answer: (D) Charles Babbage
Explanation: Charles Babbage, who designed the Analytical Engine, is called the father of the computer.

Q58. Storage capacity of a magnetic disk depends on

(A) tracks per inch of surface
(B) bits per inch of tracks
(C) disk pack in disk surface
(D) all of these

Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: Capacity depends on track density, bit density along each track and the number of disk surfaces in the pack.

Q59. The two kinds of main memory are

(A) Primary and Secondary
(B) Random and Sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) All of these

Answer: (C) ROM and RAM
Explanation: Main (primary) memory is of two kinds: RAM (volatile) and ROM (non-volatile).

Q60. A storage area used to store data to compensate for the difference in speed at which the different units can handle data is

(A) Memory
(B) Buffer
(C) Accumulator
(D) Address

Answer: (B) Buffer
Explanation: A buffer temporarily holds data so that a fast device and a slow device can work together.

Q61. A computer is free from tiredness and boredom. We call it

(A) Accuracy
(B) Reliability
(C) Diligence
(D) Versatility

Answer: (C) Diligence
Explanation: Diligence means a computer can work for hours without fatigue or loss of concentration.

Q62. Integrated Circuits (ICs) are related to which generation of computers?

(A) First generation
(B) Second generation
(C) Third generation
(D) Fourth generation

Answer: (C) Third generation
Explanation: Third-generation computers (1964–1971) used integrated circuits.

Q63. CD-ROM is a

(A) Semiconductor memory
(B) Memory register
(C) Magnetic memory
(D) None of these

Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: A CD-ROM is optical storage, read by a laser; it is neither semiconductor nor magnetic memory.

Q64. A hybrid computer

(A) Resembles digital computer
(B) Resembles analogue computer
(C) Resembles both a digital and an analogue computer
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Resembles both a digital and an analogue computer
Explanation: A hybrid computer combines the features of analogue and digital computers.

Q65. Which type of computer uses the 8-bit code called EBCDIC?

(A) Minicomputers
(B) Microcomputers
(C) Mainframe computers
(D) Supercomputer

Answer: (C) Mainframe computers
Explanation: EBCDIC was developed by IBM and is used mainly on IBM mainframe computers.

Q66. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from

(A) Primary memory
(B) Control section
(C) External memory
(D) Cache memory

Answer: (B) Control section
Explanation: The control unit (control section) directs the ALU on which operation to perform.

Q67. The chief component of first generation computers was

(A) Transistors
(B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
(C) Integrated Circuits
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
Explanation: First-generation computers (1940s–1950s) used vacuum tubes (valves).

Q68. …….. is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the sharing of information between computing devices.

(A) Network
(B) Peripheral
(C) Expansion board
(D) Digital device

Answer: (A) Network
Explanation: A computer network links devices through hardware and software so they can share information.

Q69. 1 Byte = ?

(A) 8 bits
(B) 4 bits
(C) 2 bits
(D) 9 bits

Answer: (A) 8 bits
Explanation: One byte is 8 bits.

Q70. Which of the following ICs was used in third generation computers?

(A) SSI
(B) MSI
(C) LSI
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (D) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation: Third-generation computers used SSI and MSI chips; LSI/VLSI came with the fourth generation.

Q71. The term ‘Data Structure’ refers to …….. and the interrelationship between them.

(A) organization of data
(B) programming standard
(C) coding
(D) program design

Answer: (A) organization of data
Explanation: A data structure is a way of organising data items and the relationships between them.

Q72. In data structure, data may be of …….. types.

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer: (B) 2
Explanation: Data structures are commonly classified into two types: primitive and non-primitive (or linear and non-linear).

Q73. Variables which can be accessed by all modules of the program are called

(A) Global
(B) Auto
(C) Static
(D) Local

Answer: (A) Global
Explanation: Global variables are declared outside all functions and are visible throughout the program.

Q74. Stack, Queue and Linked list can be implemented using

(A) numeric variable
(B) string variable
(C) logical function
(D) array

Answer: (D) array
Explanation: Stacks, queues and even linked lists (with index links) can be implemented with arrays.

Q75. Hyperlinks can be created between a Word document and

(A) another Word document
(B) a webpage on the WWW
(C) a webpage on a company intranet
(D) all of these

Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: A Word hyperlink can point to another file, a web page on the Internet or a page on an intranet.

Q76. You can insert clip art from

(A) Insert, choose Pictures, then Clip Art
(B) Choose Clip Art icon from Drawing toolbar
(C) All of these
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) All of these
Explanation: In older versions of MS Word, clip art could be inserted both from Insert → Picture → Clip Art and from the Insert Clip Art button on the Drawing toolbar.

Q77. Which of the following cannot be done with a document version?

(A) Modifying a version
(B) Deleting a version
(C) Opening a version
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Modifying a version
Explanation: A saved version can be opened or deleted, but it cannot be modified directly; changes must be saved as a new version.

Q78. When you drag selected text, you can

(A) Delete text
(B) Link text
(C) Copy text
(D) Move text

Answer: (D) Move text
Explanation: Dragging selected text moves it to the new position (holding Ctrl while dragging copies it).

Q79. You can search in a Word document for

(A) Formatting
(B) Special characters
(C) Phrases
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: Find (Ctrl + F) can search for words or phrases, formatting and special characters.

Q80. You can add a date to a document by

(A) Inserting a text date
(B) Inserting a date field that will update automatically
(C) Typing the date manually
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: A date can be typed, inserted as fixed text, or inserted as a field that updates automatically.

Q81. The End key

(A) Moves the cursor to the end of the line
(B) Moves the cursor to the end of the document
(C) Moves the cursor to the end of the paragraph
(D) Moves the cursor to the end of the screen

Answer: (A) Moves the cursor to the end of the line
Explanation: End moves to the end of the current line; Ctrl + End moves to the end of the document.

Q82. “Ctrl + Page Down” is used to

(A) move the cursor one paragraph down
(B) move the cursor one page down
(C) move the cursor one line down
(D) move the cursor one screen down

Answer: (B) move the cursor one page down
Explanation: In MS Word, Ctrl + Page Down moves the cursor to the top of the next page.

Q83. “Ctrl + Down Arrow” is used to

(A) move the cursor one paragraph down
(B) move the cursor one line down
(C) move the cursor one page down
(D) move the cursor one screen down

Answer: (A) move the cursor one paragraph down
Explanation: In MS Word, Ctrl + Down Arrow jumps to the start of the next paragraph; Down Arrow alone moves one line.

Q84. Which one is a non-linear data structure?

(A) Stack
(B) Queue
(C) Linked list
(D) Tree

Answer: (D) Tree
Explanation: A tree stores data hierarchically, so it is non-linear; stacks, queues and linked lists are linear.

Q85. “Ctrl + Left Arrow” is used to

(A) move the cursor to the beginning of the line
(B) move the cursor one word left
(C) move the cursor one paragraph up
(D) move the cursor one paragraph down

Answer: (B) move the cursor one word left
Explanation: Ctrl + Left Arrow moves the cursor to the start of the previous word.

Q86. Abstraction means

(A) Summarization
(B) Elimination
(C) Hiding
(D) Casting

Answer: (C) Hiding
Explanation: Abstraction shows only the essential features and hides the implementation details from the user.

Q87. “Ctrl + Page Up” is used to

(A) move the cursor one page up
(B) move the cursor one paragraph up
(C) move the cursor one screen up
(D) move the cursor one line up

Answer: (A) move the cursor one page up
Explanation: In MS Word, Ctrl + Page Up moves the cursor to the top of the previous page.

Q88. Polymorphism is a feature of

(A) Procedural programming
(B) SQL
(C) Non-procedural programming
(D) Object Oriented Programming

Answer: (D) Object Oriented Programming
Explanation: Polymorphism (one interface, many forms) is a core concept of OOP, along with inheritance and encapsulation.

Q89. “Ctrl + Home” is used to

(A) move the cursor to the beginning of the document
(B) move the cursor to the beginning of the line
(C) move the cursor to the beginning of the paragraph
(D) all of these

Answer: (A) move the cursor to the beginning of the document
Explanation: Ctrl + Home jumps to the beginning of the document; Home alone goes to the start of the line.

Q90. “Ctrl + End” is used to

(A) move the cursor to the end of the line
(B) move the cursor to the end of the document
(C) move the cursor to the end of the paragraph
(D) none of these

Answer: (B) move the cursor to the end of the document
Explanation: Ctrl + End jumps to the end of the document.

Q91. How can you update the values of formula cells if the Auto Calculate mode of Excel is disabled?

(A) F8
(B) F9
(C) F10
(D) F11

Answer: (B) F9
Explanation: F9 recalculates all formulas in open workbooks when calculation is set to manual.

Q92. You want to set things up so that when you type Baishakh and drag the fill handle, Excel produces Jaistha, Aashadh and so on. What will you set to achieve that?

(A) Custom List
(B) Auto Fill Options
(C) Fill Across Worksheet
(D) Fill Series

Answer: (A) Custom List
Explanation: Defining the sequence of months as a Custom List lets AutoFill continue it when you drag the fill handle.

Q93. Where can you change automatic or manual calculation mode in Excel?

(A) Double-click the CAL indicator on the status bar
(B) Go to Tools >> Options >> Calculation and mark the corresponding radio button
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation: In older Excel, the mode is set under Tools → Options → Calculation, and it can also be reached from the status-bar indicator, so both methods are accepted.

Q94. How can you show or hide the gridlines in an Excel worksheet?

(A) Go to Tools >> Options >> View tab and mark or remove the check box named Gridlines
(B) Click the Gridline tool on the Forms toolbar
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Both (A) & (B)
Explanation: Gridlines can be toggled from the View tab of Tools → Options, and the Forms toolbar’s Toggle Grid button also shows or hides them.

Q95. Which of the following Excel screen components cannot be turned on or off?

(A) Formula Bar
(B) Status Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) None of these

Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: The Formula Bar, Status Bar and toolbars can all be shown or hidden from the View menu, so none of them is fixed.

Q96. What happens when you press Ctrl + X after selecting some cells in Excel?

(A) The cell content of selected cells disappears from the cells and is stored in the clipboard
(B) The cells selected are marked for cutting
(C) The selected cells are deleted and the cells are shifted left
(D) The selected cells are deleted and cells are shifted up

Answer: (B) The cells selected are marked for cutting
Explanation: In Excel, Ctrl + X only marks the cells with a moving border; the data stays until you paste it elsewhere.

Q97. Which of the following options is not available in the Paste Special dialog box?

(A) Add
(B) Subtract
(C) Divide
(D) SQRT

Answer: (D) SQRT
Explanation: Paste Special’s operations are None, Add, Subtract, Multiply and Divide; there is no SQRT option.

Q98. Which command will you choose to convert a column of data into a row?

(A) Cut and Paste
(B) Edit >> Paste Special >> Transpose
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Edit >> Paste Special >> Transpose
Explanation: Copy the column, then use Paste Special with Transpose to paste it as a row. Plain cut and paste keeps the orientation.

Q99. It is acceptable to let long text flow into adjacent cells on a worksheet when

(A) data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(B) no data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(C) there is no suitable abbreviation for the text
(D) there is no time to format the text

Answer: (B) no data will be entered in the adjacent cells
Explanation: Long text spills into neighbouring cells only while they are empty; once data is entered there, the text is cut off.

Q100. Which of the cell pointers indicates that you can make a selection?

(A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
(B) Small thin plus icon
(C) Mouse pointer with anchor at the tip
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
Explanation: The thick white plus (the ‘doctor’s symbol’) appears over cells and means you can select them.

Q101. Which of the cell pointers indicates that you can fill a series?

(A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
(B) Small thin plus icon
(C) Mouse pointer with anchor at the tip
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Small thin plus icon
Explanation: Over the fill handle the pointer becomes a small thin black plus, which lets you drag to fill a series.

Q102. On an Excel sheet the active cell is indicated by

(A) a dotted border
(B) a dark wide border
(C) a blinking border
(D) italic text

Answer: (B) a dark wide border
Explanation: The active cell is outlined with a thick dark border.

Q103. What term describes explanatory text attached to a cell?

(A) Context
(B) Callout
(C) Comment
(D) Dialog

Answer: (C) Comment
Explanation: A comment (now called a note) attaches explanatory text to a cell, shown by a small red triangle.

Q104. Which of the following will not select all the cells in a document?

(A) Using the Edit – Select All menu
(B) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard
(C) Clicking three times with the right mouse button in the spreadsheet
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Clicking three times with the right mouse button in the spreadsheet
Explanation: Select All and Ctrl + A select every cell; right-clicking only opens a context menu.

Q105. The default style for new data keyed in a new workbook is

(A) Comma
(B) Normal
(C) Currency
(D) Per cent

Answer: (B) Normal
Explanation: New cells use the ‘Normal’ cell style by default.

Q106. If you press …….., the cell accepts your typing as its contents.

(A) Tab
(B) Ctrl+Enter
(C) Enter
(D) Alt+Enter

Answer: (C) Enter
Explanation: Enter confirms the entry and moves down. (Tab and Ctrl+Enter also confirm, but Enter is the standard answer; Alt+Enter adds a line break.)

Q107. Which among the following is associated with Excel?

(A) Graphic program
(B) Word Processor
(C) Presentation
(D) Spreadsheet

Answer: (D) Spreadsheet
Explanation: MS Excel is a spreadsheet program.

Q108. Except which of the following functions does a formula with a logical function show the words “TRUE” or “FALSE” as a result?

(A) NOT
(B) OR
(C) IF
(D) AND

Answer: (C) IF
Explanation: NOT, OR and AND return TRUE/FALSE, while IF returns whatever value you specify for the true and false cases.

Q109. Which of the following is not a valid zoom percentage in Excel?

(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 300
(D) 500

Answer: (D) 500
Explanation: Excel zoom ranges from 10% to 400%, so 500% is not allowed.

Q110. You can check the conditions against …….. when applying conditional formatting.

(A) Cell value
(B) Formula
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation: Conditional formatting conditions can be based on ‘Cell Value Is’ or on ‘Formula Is’.

Q111. Which of the following is a primary key in a student table?

(A) UID number
(B) Admission number
(C) Account number
(D) PAN

Answer: (B) Admission number
Explanation: The admission number is unique for every student and always available, so it is the natural primary key.

Q112. Which of the following is a valid SQL command?

(A) cin
(B) cout
(C) tuple
(D) select

Answer: (D) select
Explanation: SELECT is an SQL command; cin and cout are C++ streams, and a tuple is a row of a relation.

Q113. Which PowerPoint feature works best for adding slide transitions?

(A) Animations
(B) Chart Wizard
(C) Transition Wizard
(D) Auto Content Wizard

Answer: (A) Animations
Explanation: Transitions are usually added in Slide Sorter view or on the Animations/Transitions tab. Of the options, Animations is the closest; there is no ‘Transition Wizard’.

Q114. Objects are

(A) Design of function
(B) Creator of data
(C) Instances of classes
(D) Program block

Answer: (C) Instances of classes
Explanation: In OOP, an object is an instance of a class.

Q115. You can edit an embedded organization chart object by

(A) Double clicking the organization chart object
(B) Clicking edit object
(C) Right clicking the chart object, then clicking Edit MS-Organization Chart object
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Answer: (D) Both (A) and (C)
Explanation: An embedded org chart opens for editing by double-clicking it or through its right-click Edit option.

Q116. In Boolean algebra A.A is equal to

(A) A
(B) 2A
(C) A²
(D) 1

Answer: (A) A
Explanation: Idempotent law: A · A = A.

Q117. Slide sorter can be accessed from which menu?

(A) View
(B) Edit
(C) File
(D) Insert

Answer: (A) View
Explanation: Slide Sorter is one of the presentation views in the View menu.

Q118. In Boolean algebra the function of the AND operator is represented by

(A) +
(B) −
(C) /
(D) *

Answer: (D) *
Explanation: AND is logical multiplication, written A · B (or A * B); + is used for OR.

Q119. What would you choose to create a pre-formatted style?

(A) Format
(B) Slide layout
(C) Slide sorter view
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Slide layout
Explanation: Slide layouts provide ready-made placeholder arrangements and formatting for a slide.

Q120. Which of the following logical operations is represented by the + sign in Boolean algebra?

(A) OR
(B) NOT
(C) NOR
(D) AND

Answer: (A) OR
Explanation: In Boolean algebra + means OR (logical addition).

Q121. To preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, we should

(A) double click the motion path
(B) click the show effect button
(C) click the play button
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) click the play button
Explanation: The Play button at the bottom of the Custom Animation task pane previews the animation effects on the slide.

Q122. Which one is a DCL command in SQL?

(A) UPDATE
(B) SELECT
(C) DELETE
(D) GRANT

Answer: (D) GRANT
Explanation: DCL (Data Control Language) has GRANT and REVOKE; UPDATE and DELETE are DML.

Q123. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and move the mouse around the slide?

(A) Moving
(B) Dragging
(C) Monitoring
(D) Highlighting

Answer: (B) Dragging
Explanation: Holding the left button while moving the mouse is called dragging.

Q124. Which of the following SQL commands is used to view data?

(A) CREATE
(B) INSERT
(C) SELECT
(D) UPDATE

Answer: (C) SELECT
Explanation: SELECT retrieves (views) data from tables.

Q125. Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition effects for all slides in a presentation?

(A) Slide view
(B) Notes page view
(C) Outline view
(D) Slide sorter view

Answer: (D) Slide sorter view
Explanation: Slide Sorter view shows all slides as thumbnails, so it is easiest to select them all and apply transitions.

Q126. Math.h is a

(A) Derived data type
(B) Function
(C) Header file
(D) Built-in data type

Answer: (C) Header file
Explanation: math.h is the C standard header file that declares maths functions such as sqrt() and pow().

Q127. The selected design template can be applied

(A) to current slide only
(B) to all the slides
(C) to all the new presentations you create
(D) all of these

Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: In PowerPoint, a design template can be applied to selected slides, to all slides, or set as the default for new presentations.

Q128. The difference between Slide Design and Auto Content Wizard is

(A) Both are same
(B) Auto Content Wizard is just the wizard version of Slide Design
(C) Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides sample content too
(D) Slide Design asks your choice in steps but Auto Content Wizard does not let you make choices

Answer: (C) Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides sample content too
Explanation: Slide Design only applies a look, while the AutoContent Wizard also creates slides with suggested sample content.

Q129. In which menu can you find features like Slide Design, Slide Layout etc.?

(A) Insert Menu
(B) Format Menu
(C) Tools Menu
(D) Slide Show Menu

Answer: (B) Format Menu
Explanation: In PowerPoint 2003, Slide Design and Slide Layout are in the Format menu.

Q130. Which menu provides you the options like Animation Scheme, Custom Animation, Slide Transition?

(A) Insert Menu
(B) Format Menu
(C) Tools Menu
(D) Slide Show Menu

Answer: (D) Slide Show Menu
Explanation: In PowerPoint 2003, Animation Schemes, Custom Animation and Slide Transition are in the Slide Show menu.

Q131. When a collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called

(A) computer network
(B) distributed system
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) none of the mentioned

Answer: (B) distributed system
Explanation: A distributed system is a collection of independent computers that appears to its users as one coherent system (Tanenbaum).

Q132. Two devices are in a network if

(A) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
(B) a process is running on both devices
(C) PIDs of the processes running on different devices are the same
(D) none of these

Answer: (A) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
Explanation: Devices form a network when a process on one can exchange information with a process on the other.

Q133. Which one of the following computer networks is built on top of another network?

(A) Prior network
(B) Chief network
(C) Prime network
(D) Overlay network

Answer: (D) Overlay network
Explanation: An overlay network (e.g. a P2P network or VPN) is a virtual network built on top of an existing network.

Q134. In a computer network, nodes are

(A) the computer that originates the data
(B) the computer that routes the data
(C) the computer that terminates the data
(D) all of these

Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: Any device that originates, routes or receives data is a node.

Q135. The communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in a

(A) broadcast network
(B) unicast network
(C) multicast network
(D) none of these

Answer: (A) broadcast network
Explanation: In a broadcast network, all machines share a single channel and every packet is received by all of them.

Q136. …….. is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.

(A) Bridge
(B) Firewall
(C) Router
(D) All of these

Answer: (C) Router
Explanation: A router reads the destination address in each packet and forwards it between networks.

Q137. The structure or format of data is called

(A) Syntax
(B) Semantics
(C) Struct
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Syntax
Explanation: In protocols, syntax is the structure or format of data, while semantics is the meaning of each section.

Q138. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves …….. transmission.

(A) Automatic
(B) Half-duplex
(C) Full-duplex
(D) Simplex

Answer: (D) Simplex
Explanation: Data flows only one way, from the keyboard to the computer, so it is simplex.

Q139. Which of the following is not a network edge device?

(A) PC
(B) Smartphones
(C) Servers
(D) Switch

Answer: (D) Switch
Explanation: End systems (PCs, phones, servers) sit at the network edge, while switches and routers form the network core.

Q140. Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?

(A) Coaxial cable
(B) Twisted pair cable
(C) Optical fibre
(D) Electrical cable

Answer: (C) Optical fibre
Explanation: Optical fibre carries data as light and gives the highest bandwidth and speed.

Q141. What is the internet?

(A) A single network
(B) A vast collection of different networks
(C) Interconnection of local area networks
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) A vast collection of different networks
Explanation: The Internet is a global network of networks, a vast collection of interconnected networks.

Q142. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a(n)

(A) internet architecture board
(B) internet society
(C) internet service provider
(D) none of these

Answer: (C) internet service provider
Explanation: An Internet Service Provider (ISP) gives users access to the Internet.

Q143. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided by

(A) leased line
(B) digital subscriber line
(C) digital signal line
(D) none of the mentioned

Answer: (B) digital subscriber line
Explanation: DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) sends digital data over ordinary telephone copper wires.

Q144. ISPs exchange internet traffic between their networks by

(A) internet exchange point
(B) subscriber end point
(C) ISP end point
(D) none of these

Answer: (A) internet exchange point
Explanation: An Internet Exchange Point (IXP) is where ISPs interconnect and exchange traffic.

Q145. Which one of the following protocols is not used in the internet?

(A) HTTP
(B) DHCP
(C) DNS
(D) None of these

Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: HTTP, DHCP and DNS are all used on the Internet, so the answer is ‘None of these’.

Q146. An IPv6 address has a size of

(A) 32 bits
(B) 64 bits
(C) 128 bits
(D) 265 bits

Answer: (C) 128 bits
Explanation: IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long.

Q147. The Internet works on

(A) packet switching
(B) circuit switching
(C) both packet switching and circuit switching
(D) none of these

Answer: (A) packet switching
Explanation: The Internet is a packet-switched network: data is split into packets that are routed independently.

Q148. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in the internet?

(A) Remote procedure call
(B) Internet relay chat
(C) Resource reservation protocol
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Resource reservation protocol
Explanation: RSVP (Resource Reservation Protocol) works at the transport/network level to reserve resources, not at the application layer.

Q149. Which protocol assigns IP addresses to clients connected to the internet?

(A) DHCP
(B) IP
(C) RPC
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) DHCP
Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses to clients.

Q150. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?

(A) Ethernet
(B) Digital subscriber line
(C) Fiber distributed data interface
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Digital subscriber line
Explanation: Ethernet and FDDI define MAC sublayer methods; DSL is a physical access technology over telephone lines, not a MAC method.

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