Bihar STET General Awareness & Reasoning Previous Year Questions with Answers (2019–2025)

Every Bihar STET paper has a general awareness and reasoning part, and it’s the same for every subject. This page puts together 250 of these questions from the 2019 to 2025 Bihar STET papers, with the correct answer and a short explanation for each.

Bihar STET 2026 is being held from 25 October to 20 November 2026. These questions cover current affairs, history, geography, polity, science, basic maths and reasoning, so they’re good last-minute revision.

Table of Contents

• Bihar STET 2026 exam pattern
• What gets asked
• 3 November 2025, Shift 1 (Q1–20)
• 3 November 2025, Shift 2 (Q21–40)
• 4 November 2025, Shift 2 (Q41–60)
• 7 November 2025, Shift 1 (Q61–80)
• 12 September 2023, Shift 1 (Q81–100)
• 2020 Re-Exam (Set B) (Q101–150)
• 2019 (Set A) (Q151–200)
• 2019 (Set H) (Q201–250)
• How to prepare
• FAQs

Bihar STET 2026 Exam Pattern

Exam	Bihar STET 2026 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)
Conducting body	Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB)
Exam dates	25 October to 20 November 2026 (computer-based test)
Papers	Paper 1 (Class 9–10) and Paper 2 (Class 11–12)
Questions	150 MCQs, 1 mark each, 2 hours 30 minutes
Split	100 marks for your subject + 50 marks for teaching aptitude and general skills
Negative marking	None

In the 2023 and 2025 papers, the 50-mark part had 20 general awareness and reasoning questions and 30 teaching aptitude questions (see our Bihar STET Teaching Aptitude PYQs). The 2019 and 2020 papers had a 50-question General Knowledge & Other Skills part instead.

To pass, you need these marks out of 150:

Category	Qualifying marks
General	50% (75 of 150)
BC	45.5% (68.25)
EBC	42.5% (63.75)
SC / ST / PwD / Women	40% (60)

What Gets Asked

• Reasoning: coding-decoding, number and letter series, directions, analogies, counting figures.
• Basic maths: percentages, averages, geometry, mensuration.
• Static GK: Indian history and the national movement, geography, the Constitution.
• Science: everyday physics, chemistry and biology.
• Current affairs: awards, sports and appointments. These date quickly, so read the latest year’s news as well.

2023 and 2025 papers (20 questions each)

3 November 2025, Shift 1 (Q1–20)

These 20 questions are Part III of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper of 3 November 2025, Shift 1.

Q1. In any code GROUND is written as HQPTOC then what will be TIRED written in that code?

(A) UHSDE
(B) VHSDE
(C) UHSDC
(D) UHQFC

Answer: (A) UHSDE
Explanation: Pattern +1, −1, +1, −1, +1, −1: T→U, I→H, R→S, E→D, D→E, giving UHSDE.

Q2. What is the term for a market condition where supply exceeds demand?

(A) Shortage
(B) Surplus
(C) Equilibrium
(D) Deficit

Answer: (B) Surplus
Explanation: When supply exceeds demand, the result is a surplus.

Q3. Khudai Khidmatgars were popularly known as the ___________

(A) Green Shirts
(B) Red Shirts
(C) Black Shirts
(D) White Shirts

Answer: (B) Red Shirts
Explanation: The Khudai Khidmatgars of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan were called the Red Shirts (Surkh Posh).

Q4. To kill fungus on crops we generally used………….

(A) Insecticides
(B) Pesticides
(C) Fungicides
(D) All of these

Answer: (C) Fungicides
Explanation: Fungicides are used to kill fungi on crops.

Q5. For some people, playing is actually work. Below are some names of famous people, Pick the name whose work is actually playing.

(A) Ajeet Yogi
(B) Michael Jordan
(C) Jack Nicholson
(D) Steve Jobs

Answer: (B) Michael Jordan
Explanation: Michael Jordan is a professional basketball player; playing is his work.

Q6. Choose the correct option instead of the question mark in the given question. GOA : 761 :: KAIMUR : ?

(A) 119439
(B) 219339
(C) 219439
(D) 218349

Answer: (C) 219439
Explanation: Letter positions are reduced to a single digit: G=7, O=15→6, A=1 gives 761. K=11→2, A=1, I=9, M=13→4, U=21→3, R=18→9 gives 219439.

Q7. What will come in place of ? in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, ?, 258?

(A) 150,
(B) 155
(C) 160
(D) 176

Answer: (B) 155
Explanation: Pattern n³ + n(n+1): 1+2=3, 8+6=14, 27+12=39, 64+20=84, 125+30=155, 216+42=258.

Q8. Meena divides a number by 2. She then divides the answer by 2. This is the same as dividing the original number by:

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

Answer: (A) 4
Explanation: Dividing by 2 twice is the same as dividing by 2 × 2 = 4.

Q9. A class VI mathematics teacher posed the following problem to her students: “In a morning walk, three persons started together. Their steps measure 70 cm , 85 cm and 95 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that all can cover the same distance in complete steps?” Which of the following concepts would be required to solve the given problem?

(A) Concept of LCM
(B) Concept of division
(C) Concept of proportion
(D) Concept of HCF

Answer: (A) Concept of LCM
Explanation: The smallest distance covered in complete steps by all three is the LCM of 70, 85 and 95.

Q10. Out of 60 people in a colony, 10 speak only Bengali, 5 speak only Assamese, 10 speak both Hindi and Odia, 12 speak both Marathi and Hindi, 13 speak English, Tamil and Marathi, 5 speak both Assamese and Hindi and the remaining speak both Bengali and Hindi. How many people speak more than one language?

(A) 15
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55

Answer: (B) 45
Explanation: Only 10 (Bengali only) and 5 (Assamese only) speak a single language, so 60 − 15 = 45 speak more than one.

Q11. Pravin walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?

(A) 50 m.
(B) 40 m.
(C) 10 m.
(D) 20 m.

Answer: (D) 20 m.
Explanation: 30 m east, 20 m south, then 30 m west leaves him 20 m south of the start.

Q12. The statement related to the congruence of a triangle – “Given the length of any two sides and the length of these sides and the measure of the angle between these sides” – is a restriction/condition.

(A) SSS
(B) S.A.S.
(C) ASA
(D) RHS

Answer: (B) S.A.S.
Explanation: Two sides and the included angle is the SAS congruence rule.

Q13. The number of Bricks each measuring 25 cm x 12.5 cm x 7.5 cm required to construct a wall 6 m Long, 5 m High, and 0.5 m Thick, While the Mortar occupies 5 Percent of the Volume of the Wall is?

(A) 8819
(B) 6080
(C) 9011
(D) 2019

Answer: (B) 6080
Explanation: Wall = 6 × 5 × 0.5 = 15 m³; bricks fill 95% = 14.25 m³; one brick = 0.25 × 0.125 × 0.075 = 0.00234375 m³; 14.25 ÷ 0.00234375 = 6080.

Q14. India is divided into how many pin code zones?

(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Eight
(D) Ten

Answer: (C) Eight
Explanation: The first digit of a PIN code covers 8 regional zones (plus a 9th zone for the Army Postal Service); among the options, eight is the answer.

Q15. Which of the following is not an outdoor game?

(A) Football
(B) capture the flag
(C) Uno
(D) Frisbee

Answer: (C) Uno
Explanation: UNO is an indoor card game.

Q16. Mahendragiri, the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, is located in which one of the following states?

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Odisha
(C) Telangana
(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (B) Odisha
Explanation: Mahendragiri (1,501 m) is in Gajapati district, Odisha.

Q17. Plants manufacture their food with the help of………..

(A) Oxygen, Sunlight, Water
(B) Carbon dioxide , Oxygen, Sunlight
(C) Water, Sunlight, Carbon dioxide
(D) Oxygen, Sunlight

Answer: (C) Water, Sunlight, Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Photosynthesis uses water, sunlight and carbon dioxide (with chlorophyll).

Q18. Arrange the following in their chronological sequence : i. Cripps Mission ii. Montague Chelmsford Report iii. Simon Commission iv. Morley – Minto Reforms

(A) ii, iii, i, iv
(B) iv, ii, iii, i
(C) iii, i, ii, iv
(D) i, iv, iii, ii

Answer: (B) iv, ii, iii, i
Explanation: Morley-Minto (1909), Montagu-Chelmsford (1918), Simon Commission (1927), Cripps Mission (1942), so iv, ii, iii, i.

Q19. In the alphabet how many Letters will be in between 10th and 24th Letter form the left end ?

(A) 13
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 18

Answer: (A) 13
Explanation: Letters between positions 10 and 24 = 24 − 10 − 1 = 13.

Q20. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end ?

(A) Earthquakes
(B) Landslides
(C) Hurricanes
(D) Droughts

Answer: (D) Droughts
Explanation: Droughts develop slowly and have no definite beginning or end (a ‘creeping disaster’).

3 November 2025, Shift 2 (Q21–40)

These 20 questions are Part III of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper of 3 November 2025, Shift 2.

Q21. Which statement is incorrect about the Tetris game?

(A) The game was created by Alexey Pajitnov in 1984
(B) The game consists of falling blocks, known as tetrominoes.
(C) The game is played on a 10×10 grid
(D) The objective is to clear lines by aligning blocks of the same color.

Answer: (C) The game is played on a 10×10 grid
Explanation: Tetris is played on a 10 × 20 grid, not 10 × 10. (Lines are cleared by filling a row, not by matching colours, so D is also inaccurate.)

Q22. A square pyramid has………

(A) Four faces
(B) Three faces
(C) Five faces
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Five faces
Explanation: A square pyramid has 5 faces: 1 square base and 4 triangles.

Q23. if A means +, B means-, Z means÷ and C means*, then 10C2A5B5=?

(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20

Answer: (D) 20
Explanation: 10 × 2 + 5 − 5 = 20.

Q24. If F,V and E are respectively the number of faces, vertices and edges of a triangular prism, then which of the following statements is true?

(A) 4F+2V-3E=6
(B) 2F+3V-2E = 10
(C) 2F+4V-3E=8
(D) 3F+2V-2E=11

Answer: (B) 2F+3V-2E = 10
Explanation: Triangular prism: F = 5, V = 6, E = 9, so 2(5) + 3(6) − 2(9) = 10.

Q25. Which group of organisms does not have claws?

(A) Mammals
(B) Reptiles
(C) Fishes
(D) Amphibians

Answer: (C) Fishes
Explanation: Fish have fins, not claws.

Q26. Choose the correct option instead of the question mark in the given question. DRAW : WARD :: TRAP : ?

(A) RATP
(B) PART
(C) USBQ
(D) ARTP

Answer: (B) PART
Explanation: DRAW reversed is WARD; TRAP reversed is PART.

Q27. Seema facing East walks 6 m. then turn right and walks 9 m. then she turn left and walked 6 m. How far is she from starting point ?

(A) 5 m.
(B) 10 m.
(C) 15 m.
(D) 20 m.

Answer: (C) 15 m.
Explanation: East 6 + 6 = 12 m and south 9 m: √(12² + 9²) = 15 m.

Q28. Vitamin A and K is rich in…………..

(A) Rice crop
(B) Poultry feed
(C) Parasites
(D) Manure

Answer: (B) Poultry feed
Explanation: Vitamins A and K are added to poultry feed (green fodder and supplements).

Q29. Which food group is mostly consumed by teenagers to get more calcium?

(A) Grains
(B) Meats and beans
(C) Dairy
(D) All of these

Answer: (C) Dairy
Explanation: Dairy products (milk, curd, cheese) are the main source of calcium.

Q30. Calculate the sum of lengths: 21 m 93 cm, 33 m 95 cm and 45 m 86 cm.

(A) 99 m 74 cm
(B) 98 m 74 cm
(C) 99 m 75 cm
(D) 101 m 74 cm

Answer: (D) 101 m 74 cm
Explanation: 21.93 + 33.95 + 45.86 = 101.74 m, i.e. 101 m 74 cm.

Q31. In a code language BHOPAL is written as OLOLOL, then what will be RANCHI written in that language?

(A) RIRIRI
(B) SBODIJ
(C) NININI
(D) THCNAR

Answer: (C) NININI
Explanation: The code repeats the 3rd and 6th letters: BHOPAL gives O, L → OLOLOL; RANCHI gives N, I → NININI.

Q32. A rectangular sandbox is 5 m wide and 2 m long. How many cubic metres of sand are needed to fill the box to a depth of 10 cm?

(A) 2.5
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 3

Answer: (B) 1
Explanation: Volume = 5 × 2 × 0.1 = 1 m³.

Q33. Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to a mathematics textbook?

(A) Examples in a mathematics textbook should be related to daily life of the students.
(B) A mathematics textbook should have solved examples only.
(C) A textbook of mathematics should not be very thick or heavy.
(D) A mathematics textbook should have varied exercises to give practice to students.

Answer: (B) A mathematics textbook should have solved examples only.
Explanation: A maths textbook needs varied exercises, not only solved examples.

Q34. Which one of the following is the language of the famous political treatise Amuktmalyada?

(A) Sanksrit
(B) Tamil
(C) Kannada
(D) Telugu

Answer: (D) Telugu
Explanation: Amuktamalyada was written in Telugu by Krishnadevaraya.

Q35. In which five year plan of independent India the focus was on the development of industrialization –

(A) Second
(B) Third
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

Answer: (A) Second
Explanation: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61, Mahalanobis model) focused on heavy industrialization.

Q36. Which of the port is not a Natural Port?

(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Cochin
(D) Paradip

Answer: (A) Chennai
Explanation: Chennai is an artificial harbour; Mumbai and Kochi are natural harbours.

Q37. The Kyoto Protocol specifically relates to which one among the following issues?

(A) Emission reduction
(B) Ozone layer depletion
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons
(D) Biodiversity management

Answer: (A) Emission reduction
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol (1997) commits countries to reduce greenhouse-gas emissions.

Q38. Who was the founder of Mewar Praja Mandal ?

(A) Motilal Tejawat
(B) Vallabh Bahi Patel
(C) Manik Lal Verma
(D) Swami Govindanand

Answer: (C) Manik Lal Verma
Explanation: Manikya Lal Verma founded the Mewar Praja Mandal in 1938.

Q39. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) First Law Commssion recommended Indian Penal Code, 1860. (2) Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been completely replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Select the correct answer from the given options:

(A) 1 Only.
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The IPC was drafted by the First Law Commission (Macaulay), and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaced it from 1 July 2024.

Q40. In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. Nightwalker

(A) Talker
(B) Tailer
(C) Waller
(D) Winer

Answer: (C) Waller
Explanation: NIGHTWALKER has only one L, so WALLER cannot be formed.

4 November 2025, Shift 2 (Q41–60)

These 20 questions are Part III of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper of 4 November 2025, Shift 2.

Q41. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1.The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. 2.During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. 3. Mubammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: The first Mongol invasion came under Iltutmish (1221), so 1 is wrong; under Alauddin Khalji, Qutlugh Khwaja besieged Delhi (1299), so 2 is right; 3 is not correct.

Q42. Which of the following is not prism?

(A) cuboid
(B) circle
(C) Pentagonal Prism
(D) cube

Answer: (B) circle
Explanation: A circle is a 2-D figure; a cuboid, a cube and a pentagonal prism are all prisms.

Q43. Which of the following statements with reference to surface inversion of temperature is/are correct? 1. It causes instability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. 2. This inversion commonly lasts for a few hours until the Sun comes up.

(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) 2 Only
Explanation: A surface inversion makes the lower air stable, not unstable, so 1 is wrong; it usually lasts until the Sun warms the ground, so 2 is right.

Q44. Pointing to a boy, Neha said, “He is the son of the only child of my grandfather.” How is the boy related to Neha?

(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Son in law

Answer: (A) Brother
Explanation: The only child of Neha’s grandfather is Neha’s parent, so the boy is her brother.

Q45. Asia’s first underground Hydel Project is located in which of the following States in India?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (B) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: The Shanan (Jogindernagar) project in Himachal Pradesh is described as Asia’s first underground hydel project.

Q46. What is the national animal of America ?

(A) Tiger and Bald Eagle
(B) Bald Eagle and the American Bison
(C) American Bison and Yak
(D) Golden eagle and Bison

Answer: (B) Bald Eagle and the American Bison
Explanation: The USA’s national animal is the American bison and its national bird and emblem is the bald eagle.

Q47. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to

(A) Generate additional economic activity throughout the country
(B) Beautify suburban areas
(C) Upgrade the facilities in the countryside
(D) Promote investment from domestic and foreign sources

Answer: (D) Promote investment from domestic and foreign sources
Explanation: SEZs are set up to attract domestic and foreign investment, boost exports and create jobs.

Q48. __________ is the ability to do work.

(A) energy
(B) force
(C) energy and force both
(D) none of these

Answer: (A) energy
Explanation: Energy is the capacity (ability) to do work.

Q49. Where is the old and over 2 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’, which attracts tourists from all over the country?

(A) Nilgiri
(B) Krishna delta
(C) Palk straits
(D) Malabar coast

Answer: (C) Palk straits
Explanation: The Pamban Bridge links Rameswaram island to the mainland across the Palk Strait.

Q50. What is a common effect of inflation on purchasing power?

(A) Increase in purchasing power
(B) Decrease in purchasing power
(C) No effect on purchasing power
(D) Increase in savings

Answer: (B) Decrease in purchasing power
Explanation: Inflation raises prices, so the same money buys less: purchasing power falls.

Q51. Choose the correct option instead of the question mark in the given question. Mango : Fruit :: Onion : ?

(A) Root
(B) Fruit
(C) Flower
(D) Stem

Answer: (D) Stem
Explanation: A mango is a fruit; an onion is a modified underground stem (bulb).

Q52. In the given number series what number will come in place of the Question Mark Symbol. 340, 316, 286, 250, ?

(A) 280
(B) 249
(C) 208
(D) 148

Answer: (C) 208
Explanation: The differences are −24, −30, −36, −42, so 250 − 42 = 208.

Q53. What did Gandhi do to break the salt law?

(A) Dandi March
(B) Ahmedabad March
(C) Champaran March
(D) All

Answer: (A) Dandi March
Explanation: Gandhi broke the salt law with the Dandi March (1930).

Q54. If in a certain code, ‘ABCD’ is written as 24 and ‘EFGH’ is written as 1680, then how is ‘IJKL’ written in that code?

(A) 11880
(B) 11240
(C) 7920
(D) 5940

Answer: (A) 11880
Explanation: Multiply the letter positions: ABCD = 1×2×3×4 = 24, EFGH = 5×6×7×8 = 1680, so IJKL = 9×10×11×12 = 11880.

Q55. What is the remainder when 2765 is divided by 6?

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3

Answer: (A) 5
Explanation: 2765 = 6 × 460 + 5, so the remainder is 5.

Q56. The number of vertices (V) , edges (E) and faces (F) of a polyhedron are respectively 10,15 and x. Then, the value of (3x-12) is :

(A) 9
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 7

Answer: (A) 9
Explanation: Euler’s formula F = 2 − V + E = 2 − 10 + 15 = 7, so 3×7 − 12 = 9.

Q57. What are triangular numbers?

(A) The numbers whose dot pattern can be arranged in triangles
(B) The numbers which form a triangle on adding
(C) The numbers which have three digits
(D) The numbers which do not give perfect squares on adding

Answer: (A) The numbers whose dot pattern can be arranged in triangles
Explanation: Triangular numbers (1, 3, 6, 10…) are those whose dots can be arranged in a triangle.

Q58. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. The Vernacular Press Act was passed in……….on the lines of the Irish Press Act.

(A) 1878
(B) 1968
(C) 1887
(D) 1778

Answer: (A) 1878
Explanation: Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878.

Q59. 6 persons are sitting in two rows of 3 each, facing each other. E does not sit at any of the ends. D is second to the left of F. C is a neighbour of E and sits diagonally opposite to D. B is a neighbour of F. Who will be in front of B?

(A) A
(B) E
(C) C
(D) D

Answer: (B) E
Explanation: D and F sit at the two ends of one row with B in the middle; C sits diagonally opposite D, so E takes the middle of the other row, directly in front of B.

Q60. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. B, C, E, H, L, ?

(A) P
(B) O
(C) N
(D) Q

Answer: (D) Q
Explanation: The gaps grow +1, +2, +3, +4, +5: B, C, E, H, L, Q.

7 November 2025, Shift 1 (Q61–80)

These 20 questions are Part III of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper of 7 November 2025, Shift 1.

Q61. Which one among the following is NOT a major oil field located in Gujarat?

(A) Ankaleshwar
(B) Kosamba
(C) Mehsana
(D) Moran

Answer: (D) Moran
Explanation: Moran is an oil field in Assam; Ankleshwar, Kosamba and Mehsana are in Gujarat.

Q62. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Indian Struggle 1920 – 1942’ ?

(A) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(B) Subhas Chandra Bose
(C) Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Sarat Chandra Bose

Answer: (B) Subhas Chandra Bose
Explanation: ‘The Indian Struggle 1920–1942’ was written by Subhas Chandra Bose.

Q63. 7 is to 34 as 5 is to ?

(A) 33
(B) 24
(C) 54
(D) 41

Answer: (B) 24
Explanation: Pattern n × 5 − 1: 7 × 5 − 1 = 34, so 5 × 5 − 1 = 24.

Q64. Chronologically arrange the following political events related to Indian National Movement beginning from the earliest : 1. Formation of Swaraj Party 2. Communal Award 3. Lucknow Pact 4. Simla Conference Select the correct answer from the given options:

(A) 3, 1, 2, 4
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (A) 3, 1, 2, 4
Explanation: Lucknow Pact (1916), Swaraj Party (1923), Communal Award (1932), Simla Conference (1945), so 3, 1, 2, 4.

Q65. As per the Cabinet Resolution of 1st January 2015, the NITI Aayog consists of : 1. Prime Minister of India 2. Governing Council comprising of Chief Minister of all the States and Leiutenant Governors of Union Territories 3. Rural Development Minister 4. Chief Executive Officer to be appointed by the Prime Minister Select the correct answer from the given options :

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: NITI Aayog has the PM as Chairperson, a Governing Council of all CMs and LGs, and a CEO appointed by the PM.

Q66. Which nutrient protects us from diseases?

(A) Vitamin and minerals
(B) Fats and carbohydrates
(C) Protein
(D) All of these

Answer: (A) Vitamin and minerals
Explanation: Vitamins and minerals are the protective nutrients that build immunity.

Q67. In the given letter series what letter will come in place of the question Symbol. DIL, GLO, JOR, ?

(A) MRV
(B) MRQ
(C) MRU
(D) NRO

Answer: (C) MRU
Explanation: Each letter moves 3 places ahead: D→G→J→M, I→L→O→R, L→O→R→U, giving MRU.

Q68. B is the Aunt of C. A is the Husband of B. B is the sister of D. Tell how A is related to D?

(A) Uncle
(B) Brother-in-Law
(C) Niece
(D) Son

Answer: (B) Brother-in-Law
Explanation: A is B’s husband and B is D’s sister, so A is D’s brother-in-law.

Q69. The joint between separate faces of a solid is called an………………

(A) edge
(B) face
(C) vertex
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) edge
Explanation: The line where two faces of a solid meet is an edge.

Q70. Which is the longest National Highway in India?

(A) NH 5
(B) NH44
(C) NH10
(D) NH 15

Answer: (B) NH44
Explanation: NH 44 (Srinagar to Kanyakumari) is the longest national highway in India.

Q71. Aaron weight 49 kg 357 g and Ron weights 32 kg 458 g. Who weighs less and by how much?

(A) Ron weighs less by 16 kg 899 g
(B) Aaron weighs less by 16 kg 899 g
(C) Ron weighs more by 16 kg 899 g
(D) Aaron weighs more by 16 kg 899 g

Answer: (A) Ron weighs less by 16 kg 899 g
Explanation: 49.357 kg − 32.458 kg = 16.899 kg, so Ron weighs less by 16 kg 899 g.

Q72. If we combine two consecutive triangular numbers, we get?

(A) Rational Number
(B) Whole Number
(C) Perfect Square
(D) Prime Number

Answer: (C) Perfect Square
Explanation: The sum of two consecutive triangular numbers is a perfect square, e.g. 3 + 6 = 9.

Q73. Which of the following is a waterborne disease?

(A) Measles
(B) malaria
(C) Lung disease
(D) Hepatitis

Answer: (D) Hepatitis
Explanation: Hepatitis A and E spread through contaminated water.

Q74. “Family is a unit consisting of a mother, father and their two children”. This statement is

(A) incorrect, because the statement should specify that the children are biological
(B) incorrect, because there are many kinds of families and one cannot classify family as being of only one kind
(C) correct, since this is an ideal family size
(D) correct, because this is what all Indian families are like

Answer: (B) incorrect, because there are many kinds of families and one cannot classify family as being of only one kind
Explanation: There are many types of families (joint, single-parent, etc.), so one fixed definition is incorrect.

Q75. If the median of the data 30,8,7,3,17,15,21,24,29,23 is x and the median of the data obtained by replacing 3 by 33 and 8 by 18 in the above data is y, then what is the difference between y and x ?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

Answer: (B) 3
Explanation: Original sorted median = (17 + 21)/2 = 19; new data median = (21 + 23)/2 = 22; difference = 3.

Q76. Choose the correct option instead of the question mark in the given question. 456 : 15 :: 627 : ?

(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 21

Answer: (B) 15
Explanation: The sum of the digits: 4 + 5 + 6 = 15, so 6 + 2 + 7 = 15.

Q77. In English alphabet which Letter is in between the Letter s and the Letter G ?

(A) N
(B) M
(C) L
(D) P

Answer: (B) M
Explanation: G is the 7th letter and S the 19th; the middle one is the 13th letter, M.

Q78. Which of the following are macronutrients commonly found in soil?

(A) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
(C) Iron, Manganese, Zinc
(D) Boron, Copper, Molybdenum

Answer: (B) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Explanation: N, P and K are the primary macronutrients that plants take from soil.

Q79. ABCD is a rhombus in which ∠ADB = 25 Degree. Then, the value of ( 2∠BAD – ∠ABC ) is :

(A) 230 Degree
(B) 240 Degree
(C) 210 Degree
(D) 260 Degree

Answer: (C) 210 Degree
Explanation: The diagonals bisect the angles: ∠ADC = 50°, so ∠BAD = 130° and ∠ABC = 50°. 2 × 130 − 50 = 210°.

Q80. Globalization signifies which of the following :

(A) Time-space compression
(B) The integration of the world economy
(C) The growth of supra- territorial relations between people
(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation: Globalization means time-space compression, economic integration and the growth of supra-territorial relations.

12 September 2023, Shift 1 (Q81–100)

These 20 questions are Part III of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper of 12 September 2023, Shift 1.

Q81. There were widespread rises against the British in the 1820s. Which one of the following did not revolt in the 1820s?

(A) Santhals
(B) Ahoms
(C) Pagal Panthis
(D) Ramosi

Answer: (A) Santhals
Explanation: The Ahoms, Pagal Panthis and Ramosis rose in the 1820s; the Santhal rebellion came in 1855–56.

Q82. If the Sun rises at Tirap in Arunachal Pradesh at 5.00 am (IST), then when (IST) the Sun will rise in Kandla, Gujarat?

(A) About 5.00 a.m.
(B) About 6.20 a.m.
(C) About 7.30 a.m.
(D) About 7.00 a.m.

Answer: (D) About 7.00 a.m.
Explanation: Tirap (~96°E) and Kandla (~70°E) are about 26° apart, i.e. 26 × 4 ≈ 104 minutes, so sunrise is around 6:45 am. About 7:00 am is the nearest option.

Q83. What is the maximum investment by any single investor in an Indian company?

(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%

Answer: (A) 10%
Explanation: The official key gives 10%, the cap for a single foreign portfolio investor in an Indian company.

Q84. Who among the following was not related to Champaran Satyagraha?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Anugrah Narayan Singh
(C) JB Kriplani
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan

Answer: (D) Jai Prakash Narayan
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha and J.B. Kripalani worked with Gandhi in Champaran (1917); Jayaprakash Narayan did not.

Q85. Visva-Bharati University, which was seen in the news recently, is located in which state?

(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) Odisha

Answer: (C) West Bengal
Explanation: Visva-Bharati is at Santiniketan, West Bengal.

Q86. Rama plays cricket with his friends every evening. Which energy does he use to play cricket?

(A) Sound energy
(B) Light energy
(C) Chemical energy
(D) Muscular energy

Answer: (D) Muscular energy
Explanation: Playing cricket uses the muscular energy of the body.

Q87. Which one of the following is ‘sticky rice’ and is a common variety of rice in Assam?

(A) Ponni rice
(B) Bora rice
(C) Arborio rice
(D) Bomba rice

Answer: (B) Bora rice
Explanation: Bora (bora saul) is Assam’s glutinous ‘sticky’ rice.

Q88. When we burn fuels, we get :

(A) Light and sound energy
(B) Only light energy
(C) Heat and light energy
(D) Mechanical and Light energy

Answer: (C) Heat and light energy
Explanation: Burning fuel releases heat and light energy.

Q89. Consider the following statements about snakes and identify the Incorrect one from the following:

(A) They chew up their prey
(B) They swallow their food whole
(C) Snakes have sharp teeth
(D) Poisonous snakes have fangs.

Answer: (A) They chew up their prey
Explanation: Snakes swallow prey whole; they do not chew it.

Q90. With respect to Gujarat, the locations of Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh, respectively, are:

(A) North-West; South-East
(B) North-West; South-West
(C) North-East; South-West
(D) North-East; South-East

Answer: (D) North-East; South-East
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh is north-east of Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh is south-east of it.

Q91. Which one of the following groups have all 3-dimensional shapes?

(A) Cube, Cuboid, Sphere, Cylinder
(B) Cube, Cuboid, Semi-Circle, Cone
(C) Cube, Cuboid, Circle, Cone
(D) Cube, Cuboid, Circle, Triangle

Answer: (A) Cube, Cuboid, Sphere, Cylinder
Explanation: Cube, cuboid, sphere and cylinder are all 3-D; circles, semicircles and triangles are 2-D.

Q92. What is the missing number in the pattern given below? 1, 6, 15, ___, 45, 66, 91

(A) 25
(B) 36
(C) 28
(D) 32

Answer: (C) 28
Explanation: The differences are 5, 9, 13, 17, 21, 25 (increasing by 4), so 15 + 13 = 28.

Q93. A whole number is added to 100 and the same number is subtracted from 100. the sum of the two resulting numbers so obtained is :

(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 0
(D) 50

Answer: (B) 200
Explanation: (100 + x) + (100 − x) = 200.

Q94. The sum of 5 – 5 + 5 – 5 + 5 – 5 …………… , to odd number of terms is :

(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 0
(D) -5

Answer: (A) 5
Explanation: The terms cancel in pairs, leaving one +5 when the number of terms is odd.

Q95. Which of the following arrangements represents a descending order of numbers?

(A) 10.5, 1.50, 1.05, 1.055, 1.005, 0.155
(B) 10.5, 1.50, 1.055, 1.05, 1.005, 0.155
(C) 1.05, 1.005, 1.50, 1.055, 10.5, 0.155
(D) 10.5, 1.05, 1.055, 1.50, 1.005, 0.155

Answer: (B) 10.5, 1.50, 1.055, 1.05, 1.005, 0.155
Explanation: 10.5 > 1.50 > 1.055 > 1.05 > 1.005 > 0.155.

Q96. Monday : April : : Friday : ?

(A) July
(B) Saturday
(C) August
(D) Tuesday

Answer: (C) August
Explanation: Monday is the 2nd day and April the 4th month (+2); Friday is the 6th day, and the 8th month is August.

Q97. Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

(A) Kidney
(B) Heart
(C) Lung
(D) Ear

Answer: (B) Heart
Explanation: Kidneys, lungs and ears come in pairs; the heart is a single organ.

Q98. Find the next term: 60, 30, 120, 15, 240, ?

(A) 30
(B) 120
(C) 140
(D) 7½

Answer: (D) 7½
Explanation: Alternate terms: 60, 120, 240 (×2) and 30, 15, 7½ (÷2), so the next is 7½.

Q99. In a certain code, if BAD is written as YZW and SAID is written as HZRW, then LIFE will be written as:

(A) ORUV
(B) OSUV
(C) OQVU
(D) ORVW

Answer: (A) ORUV
Explanation: Each letter is replaced by its opposite (A↔Z, B↔Y…): L→O, I→R, F→U, E→V, giving ORUV.

Q100. Pointing towards Sita, Nikhil said, “I am the only son of her mother’s son”. How is Sita related to Nikhil?

(A) Aunt
(B) Niece
(C) Mother
(D) Cousin

Answer: (A) Aunt
Explanation: Sita’s mother’s son is Sita’s brother; Nikhil is his son, so Sita is Nikhil’s aunt (bua).

2019 and 2020 papers (50 questions each)

2020 Re-Exam (Set B) (Q101–150)

These 50 questions are Part I (General Knowledge & Other Skills) of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper 2020 Re-Exam (Set B).

Q101. A is the brother of B, C is the father of D, E is the mother of B, A and D are brothers. What is the relation of C with E?

(A) Sister
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Niece
(D) Wife

Answer: (D) Wife
Explanation: A, B and D are siblings, so E (mother of B) is also the mother of D. C is D’s father, so C is E’s husband, i.e. E is C’s wife.

Q102. Ashok started to move in the direction of north. After moving 30 m, he turned to his left and moved 40 m. Again he turned to his left and moved 30 m. Now how far is he from the starting point?

(A) 50 m
(B) 40 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 20 m

Answer: (B) 40 m
Explanation: 30 m north, 40 m west, 30 m south: the north-south moves cancel, leaving him 40 m west of the start.

Q103. If CHAIR is coded in a symbolic language as 53269 and EAR as 729, then how will HEAR be coded?

(A) 3792
(B) 3729
(C) 3972
(D) 3929

Answer: (B) 3729
Explanation: From the codes, H=3, E=7, A=2, R=9, so HEAR = 3729.

Q104. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘÷’, what will be the value of 5 + 4 − 18 × 3?

(A) 26
(B) 14
(C) −34
(D) 6

Answer: (A) 26
Explanation: The expression becomes 5 × 4 + 18 ÷ 3 = 20 + 6 = 26.

Q105. [Figure-based question] Find the missing number. Eight numbers are arranged around a star: 49, 64, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25 and ?

(A) 35
(B) 41
(C) 36
(D) 40

Answer: (C) 36
Explanation: The numbers are the squares 1², 2², …, 8² (1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49, 64), so the missing one is 6² = 36.

Q106. In which year was the ‘Planning Commission’ set up in India?

(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

Answer: (C) 1950
Explanation: The Planning Commission was set up on 15 March 1950.

Q107. Which of the following is the chemical formula of Bleaching Powder?

(A) Ca(OCl)Cl
(B) Na(OCl)Cl
(C) CaCO₃
(D) KMnO₄

Answer: (A) Ca(OCl)Cl
Explanation: Bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride, Ca(OCl)Cl (often written CaOCl₂).

Q108. National Education Day is celebrated on the birthday of

(A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Explanation: National Education Day (11 November) marks the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, India’s first Education Minister.

Q109. The binary system of computer uses powers of

(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16

Answer: (A) 2
Explanation: Binary is base 2, so each place value is a power of 2.

Q110. Which of the following aqueous solutions will turn blue litmus to red?

(A) Copper oxide
(B) Iron oxide
(C) Magnesium oxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide

Answer: (D) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation: SO₂ is a non-metal oxide; it dissolves to form sulphurous acid, which turns blue litmus red. The others are basic metal oxides.

Q111. Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced both naturally and as a result of industrial activity?

(A) Methane
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Chlorofluorocarbon

Answer: (D) Chlorofluorocarbon
Explanation: CFCs are entirely man-made; methane, nitrous oxide and CO₂ also have natural sources.

Q112. ‘Synectics’ is the method used for catering to which category of children?

(A) Gifted children
(B) Backward children
(C) Retarded children
(D) Creative children

Answer: (D) Creative children
Explanation: Synectics (W. J. J. Gordon) uses analogies and metaphors to develop creative thinking.

Q113. Where is the capital of Myanmar situated?

(A) Rangoon
(B) Yangoon
(C) Naypyitaw
(D) Burma

Answer: (C) Naypyitaw
Explanation: Naypyidaw has been Myanmar’s capital since 2005-06 (it replaced Yangon).

Q114. The first Indian Governor-General of independent India was

(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Surinder Nath
(D) B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: (B) C. Rajagopalachari
Explanation: C. Rajagopalachari (1948-50) was the first and only Indian Governor-General.

Q115. Mahatma Gandhi’s Champaran Movement was for which of the following?

(A) Civil disobedience movement
(B) Solving the problems of indigo workers
(C) The security rights of Harijans
(D) Maintaining the unity of Hindu Society

Answer: (B) Solving the problems of indigo workers
Explanation: The Champaran Satyagraha (1917, Bihar) was against the forced indigo cultivation (tinkathia) imposed on peasants.

Q116. The average of three consecutive odd numbers is 12 more than one third of the first of these numbers. What is the last of the three numbers?

(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) 19
Explanation: Let them be x, x+2, x+4. The average is x+2 = x/3 + 12, so x = 15 and the last number is 19.

Q117. Rs. 7,500 is to be divided among A, B and C such that A’s share to B’s share is in the ratio 5 : 2 and B’s share to C’s share is in the ratio 7 : 13. How much will B receive?

(A) Rs. 1,400
(B) Rs. 3,500
(C) Rs. 2,600
(D) Rs. 7,000

Answer: (A) Rs. 1,400
Explanation: A : B : C = 35 : 14 : 26 (total 75). B = 14/75 × 7500 = Rs. 1,400.

Q118. The diagonal of a square is 4√2 cm. The diagonal of another square whose area is double that of the first square is

(A) 8√2 cm
(B) 16 cm
(C) √32 cm
(D) 8 cm

Answer: (D) 8 cm
Explanation: The first square has side 4 and area 16. The second has area 32, so its diagonal = √(2 × 32) = 8 cm.

Q119. A train 100 m long is running at a speed of 30 km/hr. The time (in seconds) in which it passes a man standing on the railway platform is

(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 15

Answer: (C) 12
Explanation: 30 km/h = 25/3 m/s. Time = 100 ÷ (25/3) = 12 seconds.

Q120. If θ is a positive acute angle and 3(sec²θ + tan²θ) = 5, then the value of cos 2θ is

(A) 1/2
(B) √3/2
(C) 1/√2
(D) 1

Answer: (A) 1/2
Explanation: sec²θ = 1 + tan²θ, so 3(1 + 2tan²θ) = 5 and tan²θ = 1/3. Then θ = 30° and cos 60° = 1/2.

Q121. Which of the following is not used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor?

(A) Liquid sodium metal
(B) Water
(C) Carbon dioxide gas
(D) Heavy water

Answer: (D) Heavy water
Explanation: Heavy water is used mainly as a moderator. Liquid sodium, water and CO₂ are standard coolants. (Heavy water also cools some PHWRs, so this question is debatable.)

Q122. The Provincial Governments were constituted under the Act of

(A) 1932
(B) 1935
(C) 1936
(D) 1947

Answer: (B) 1935
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy; provincial governments were formed after the 1937 elections.

Q123. The highest coal-producing country in the world is which of the following?

(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) Russia

Answer: (C) China
Explanation: China is by far the world’s largest coal producer.

Q124. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to

(A) their distance from sea
(B) snowfall in Shimla
(C) pollution in Amritsar
(D) the difference in their altitudes

Answer: (D) the difference in their altitudes
Explanation: Shimla is about 2,200 m high, so it is much cooler than Amritsar on the plains.

Q125. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments?

(A) Chief Minister
(B) Speaker
(C) Judge of High Court
(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor
Explanation: The Governor is the constitutional (nominal) head of a state; the Chief Minister is the real executive.

Q126. The product of two positive integers is 2048 and one of them is twice the other. Then the smaller of the numbers is

(A) 32
(B) 64
(C) 16
(D) 1024

Answer: (A) 32
Explanation: x × 2x = 2048, so x² = 1024 and x = 32.

Q127. If √3 = 1.732 is given, then the value of (2 + √3)/(2 − √3) is

(A) 11.732
(B) 13.928
(C) 12.928
(D) 13.925

Answer: (B) 13.928
Explanation: Multiplying top and bottom by (2 + √3) gives (2 + √3)² = 7 + 4√3 = 7 + 6.928 = 13.928.

Q128. The LCM of two numbers is 1820 and their HCF is 26. If one number is 130, then the other number is

(A) 70
(B) 1690
(C) 364
(D) 1264

Answer: (C) 364
Explanation: Product = LCM × HCF, so the other number = 1820 × 26 ÷ 130 = 364.

Q129. If 120 is 20% of a number, then 120% of that number will be

(A) 20
(B) 120
(C) 480
(D) 720

Answer: (D) 720
Explanation: The number is 120 ÷ 0.2 = 600, and 120% of 600 = 720.

Q130. If the successive discounts are given as 20%, 10% and 5%, then the single equivalent discount is

(A) 31.6%
(B) 31.5%
(C) 31%
(D) 31.4%

Answer: (A) 31.6%
Explanation: Price after discounts = 0.80 × 0.90 × 0.95 = 0.684, so the single discount = 31.6%.

Q131. Who is the winner of the 46th National Women Chess Championship title held in July 2019?

(A) Pratyusha Bodda
(B) Bhakti Kulkarni
(C) Surabhi Verma
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Bhakti Kulkarni
Explanation: Bhakti Kulkarni (Goa) won the 46th National Women’s Chess Championship in 2019.

Q132. At present (2020) the Vice-President of India is

(A) Nitin Gadkari
(B) Om Birla
(C) M. Venkaiah Naidu
(D) None of them

Answer: (C) M. Venkaiah Naidu
Explanation: M. Venkaiah Naidu was Vice-President from 2017 to 2022.

Q133. The National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement (NISHTHA) teachers’ training programme was launched on

(A) August 22, 2019
(B) August 22, 2018
(C) October 2, 2019
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) August 22, 2019
Explanation: NISHTHA was launched by the HRD Ministry in August 2019 (reported as 21/22 August 2019); option A is the intended answer.

Q134. According to the World Bank, which position is taken by India among the largest economies in the Global GDP Ranking, 2018?

(A) Fifth
(B) Seventh
(C) Third
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Seventh
Explanation: In the World Bank’s 2018 GDP ranking, India was the 7th largest economy.

Q135. Who submitted the report for the Draft National Education Policy, 2019 on May 31, 2019?

(A) Narendra Modi
(B) Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank
(C) K. Kasturirangan
(D) None of them

Answer: (C) K. Kasturirangan
Explanation: The committee headed by Dr K. Kasturirangan submitted the draft NEP on 31 May 2019.

Q136. Which option will take the place of (?) in the following letter pattern? BXF, DVI, FTL, HRO, ?

(A) JOL
(B) KPM
(C) KPL
(D) JPR

Answer: (D) JPR
Explanation: First letters +2 (B, D, F, H, J), second letters −2 (X, V, T, R, P), third letters +3 (F, I, L, O, R): JPR.

Q137. Which number will take the place of (?) in the following series? 144, 100, 64, ?, 16, 4

(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 36
(D) 63

Answer: (C) 36
Explanation: These are squares of even numbers: 12², 10², 8², 6², 4², 2², so ? = 36.

Q138. [Figure-based question] How many triangles are there in the given figure? (A triangle divided by one vertical line from the apex to the base and two horizontal lines.)

(A) 9
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 30

Answer: (A) 9
Explanation: Only shapes with the apex as a vertex are triangles: 3 apex-side pairs (left half, right half, whole) × 3 horizontal levels = 9.

Q139. If ‘Rajdoot’ is coded as ‘Car’, ‘Car’ as ‘Aeroplane’, ‘Aeroplane’ as ‘Train’, ‘Train’ as ‘Bus’, then by which vehicle can you reach your destination in least time?

(A) Aeroplane
(B) Train
(C) Car
(D) Bus

Answer: (B) Train
Explanation: The fastest vehicle is the aeroplane, and in this code an aeroplane is called ‘Train’.

Q140. If BLADE is coded in a symbolic language as SPTFA, then how will BALE be coded?

(A) STPA
(B) TSAP
(C) STAP
(D) TSPA

Answer: (A) STPA
Explanation: B=S, L=P, A=T, D=F, E=A, so BALE = S T P A.

Q141. What is the full form of USB as used in computer-related activities?

(A) United Serial Bus
(B) Ultra Security Block
(C) Universal Security Block
(D) Universal Serial Bus

Answer: (D) Universal Serial Bus
Explanation: USB = Universal Serial Bus.

Q142. Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place in

(A) 1930
(B) 1931
(C) 1932
(D) 1933

Answer: (B) 1931
Explanation: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5 March 1931.

Q143. Who was the father of the Indian Renaissance?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Shraddhananda
(D) Dayanand Saraswati

Answer: (B) Raja Rammohan Roy
Explanation: Raja Rammohan Roy, founder of the Brahmo Samaj, is called the father of the Indian Renaissance.

Q144. One nautical mile is equal to

(A) 1.551 km
(B) 1.852 km
(C) 2.012 km
(D) 1.644 km

Answer: (B) 1.852 km
Explanation: 1 nautical mile = 1.852 km.

Q145. Who was the Prime Minister of England at the time when India got independence?

(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Tony Blair
(C) Clement Attlee
(D) Margaret Thatcher

Answer: (C) Clement Attlee
Explanation: Clement Attlee (Labour) was British PM in 1947.

Q146. Which article of the Constitution of India is related to the Right to Education?

(A) Article 45
(B) Article 30(1)
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 15(1)

Answer: (C) Article 21A
Explanation: Article 21A (86th Amendment, 2002) makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6–14.

Q147. For which word has the letter ‘G’ been used in ‘2G spectrum’?

(A) Government
(B) Global
(C) Generation
(D) Google

Answer: (C) Generation
Explanation: 2G means second-generation mobile technology.

Q148. Mendel’s principle of inheritance is based on

(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Vegetative reproduction
(D) All of these

Answer: (A) Sexual reproduction
Explanation: Mendel’s laws come from crossing pea plants, i.e. sexual reproduction.

Q149. Which component of plants receives the stimulus for flowering?

(A) Roots
(B) Stems
(C) Leaves
(D) Branches

Answer: (C) Leaves
Explanation: Leaves sense the photoperiod and produce the flowering signal (florigen).

Q150. ‘Do or Die’ is associated with the movement

(A) Non-cooperation
(B) Khilafat
(C) Dandi
(D) Quit India

Answer: (D) Quit India
Explanation: Gandhi gave the ‘Do or Die’ call at the start of the Quit India Movement in August 1942.

2019 (Set A) (Q151–200)

These 50 questions are Part I (General Knowledge & Other Skills) of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper 2019 (Set A).

Q151. Among the following, whom did K. K. Birla Foundation announce on May 16, 2019 as the winner of the 28th Bihari Puraskar?

(A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
(B) Leeladhar Jagudi
(C) Keerti Parihar
(D) None of them

Answer: (A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
Explanation: Manisha Kulshreshtha was chosen for the 28th Bihari Puraskar for her Hindi novel ‘Swapnapash’.

Q152. The 54th Jnanpith Award was given to which English writer in New Delhi on June 12, 2019?

(A) Sunil Shrivastava
(B) Amitav Ghosh
(C) Yuvraj Bhattarai
(D) Leeladhar Jagudi

Answer: (B) Amitav Ghosh
Explanation: Amitav Ghosh became the first English-language writer to receive the Jnanpith Award (54th, 2018).

Q153. Among the following, who is the Chief Election Commissioner of India at present (2019)?

(A) Ashok Lavasa
(B) Sunil Arora
(C) Sushil Chandra
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Sunil Arora
Explanation: Sunil Arora was the Chief Election Commissioner from December 2018 to April 2021.

Q154. The minimum pension provided by the Central Government from May 31, 2019 to all small and marginal farmers (SMF) on attaining the age of 60 years is

(A) Rs. 2000 per month
(B) Rs. 3000 per month
(C) Rs. 4000 per month
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Rs. 3000 per month
Explanation: Under the PM Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana, small and marginal farmers get a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after age 60.

Q155. The winner of the World Mixed Team Badminton Championship, Sudirman Cup 2019, is

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) China
Explanation: China beat Japan 3–0 in the 2019 Sudirman Cup final at Nanning.

Q156. A number when divided by 52 gives remainder 45. If the same number is divided by 13, the remainder will be

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 7

Answer: (B) 6
Explanation: 52 is a multiple of 13, so the remainder is 45 mod 13 = 6.

Q157. Which of the following is the largest number? √2, ∛3, ∜4, ⁶√6

(A) √2
(B) ∛3
(C) ∜4
(D) ⁶√6

Answer: (B) ∛3
Explanation: Raise all to the 12th power: √2 → 64, ∛3 → 81, ∜4 → 64, ⁶√6 → 36. So ∛3 is the largest.

Q158. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their LCM is 120. The sum of the numbers is

(A) 70
(B) 35
(C) 140
(D) 105

Answer: (A) 70
Explanation: Numbers are 3x and 4x with LCM 12x = 120, so x = 10; the numbers are 30 and 40, and their sum is 70.

Q159. When 60 is subtracted from 60% of a number, the result is 60. The number is

(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 180
(D) 200

Answer: (D) 200
Explanation: 0.6x − 60 = 60 gives 0.6x = 120, so x = 200.

Q160. If the cost price of 15 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books, the loss per cent is

(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 25

Answer: (D) 25
Explanation: Let CP of one book = 1. CP of 20 books = 20, SP of 20 books = 15. Loss = 5/20 × 100 = 25%.

Q161. The average of 20 numbers is 15 and the average of the first five numbers is 12. The average of the rest is

(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 13

Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: Total = 300; first five = 60; remaining 15 numbers total 240, so their average is 16.

Q162. If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 7 and C : D = 8 : 9, then A : D is equal to

(A) 3 : 7
(B) 7 : 3
(C) 21 : 10
(D) 10 : 21

Answer: (D) 10 : 21
Explanation: A : D = (3 × 5 × 8) : (4 × 7 × 9) = 120 : 252 = 10 : 21.

Q163. The perimeter of a rectangle is 160 metre, and the difference of its two sides is 48 metre. Find the side of a square whose area is equal to the area of this rectangle.

(A) 32 m
(B) 8 m
(C) 4 m
(D) 16 m

Answer: (A) 32 m
Explanation: l + b = 80 and l − b = 48, so l = 64 and b = 16. Area = 1024 m², and the square’s side is √1024 = 32 m.

Q164. A man walking at the rate of 5 km/hr crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the bridge (in metres) is

(A) 600
(B) 750
(C) 1000
(D) 1250

Answer: (D) 1250
Explanation: Distance = 5 km/h × 1/4 h = 1.25 km = 1250 m.

Q165. If A is an acute angle and cot A + cosec A = 3, then the value of sin A is

(A) 1
(B) 4/5
(C) 3/5
(D) 0

Answer: (C) 3/5
Explanation: (1 + cos A)/sin A = cot(A/2) = 3, so tan(A/2) = 1/3. Then sin A = 2t/(1 + t²) = (2/3)/(10/9) = 3/5.

Q166. Pointing towards Garima, Rakesh said, “Her father is the only son of my father.” How is Rakesh related to Garima?

(A) Brother
(B) Father
(C) Uncle
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Father
Explanation: The only son of Rakesh’s father is Rakesh himself, so Rakesh is Garima’s father.

Q167. Samir went 15 m to the west from his house, then turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned east and walked 25 m, and finally turning left covered 20 m. How far was he from his house?

(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 40 m
(D) 80 m

Answer: (B) 10 m
Explanation: West 15, south 20, east 25, north 20: the north–south moves cancel and he ends 25 − 15 = 10 m east of his house.

Q168. If DEEP is coded in a symbolic language as 60 and RABIT as 100, then how will HAIR be coded?

(A) 27
(B) 72
(C) 90
(D) 160

Answer: (B) 72
Explanation: Code = 2 × sum of letter positions: DEEP = 2 × 30 = 60, RABIT = 2 × 50 = 100, HAIR = 2 × (8 + 1 + 9 + 18) = 72.

Q169. If ‘×’ means ‘−’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘÷’, then 8 ÷ 4 × 2 − 4 + 2 = ?

(A) 2
(B) 28
(C) 32
(D) 36

Answer: (C) 32
Explanation: The expression becomes 8 × 4 − 2 + 4 ÷ 2 = 32 − 2 + 2 = 32.

Q170. Find the missing number in the following figure: a circle divided into six sectors containing 8, 27, 64, 125, 216 and ?

(A) 4
(B) 305
(C) 343
(D) 729

Answer: (C) 343
Explanation: The numbers are cubes: 2³, 3³, 4³, 5³, 6³, so the missing number is 7³ = 343.

Q171. Which option will take the place of (?) in the following letter pattern? JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ?

(A) OEP
(B) NEO
(C) MEN
(D) PFQ

Answer: (B) NEO
Explanation: Each letter moves forward by one: J→K→L→M→N, A→B→C→D→E, K→L→M→N→O, giving NEO.

Q172. Which number will take the place of (?) in the following number series? 16, 23, 31, 40, 50, 61, ?

(A) 73
(B) 77
(C) 83
(D) 81

Answer: (A) 73
Explanation: The differences are 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, so the next is 61 + 12 = 73.

Q173. How many triangles are there in the following figure? [Figure: a triangle with a line drawn from each vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side, so all three lines meet at one interior point.]

(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 7

Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: A triangle divided by its three medians has 6 small triangles, 6 triangles made of two parts, 3 made of three parts and the whole triangle: 6 + 6 + 3 + 1 = 16.

Q174. If ‘Sand’ is coded as ‘Brick’, ‘Brick’ as ‘House’, ‘House’ as ‘Temple’, ‘Temple’ as ‘Palace’, then where do you worship?

(A) Palace
(B) Temple
(C) Brick
(D) House

Answer: (A) Palace
Explanation: Worship happens in a temple, and in this code ‘Temple’ is called ‘Palace’.

Q175. If LIGHT is coded in a symbolic language as JGEFR, then how will SHORT be coded in that language?

(A) FQMPR
(B) QFMPR
(C) FQMRP
(D) QFMRP

Answer: (B) QFMPR
Explanation: Each letter moves two places back (L→J, I→G, …), so SHORT becomes QFMPR.

Q176. Who said, “The Principles (Directive Principles) should be made the basis of all the future legislation”?

(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. B. N. Rau
(D) Dr. Zakir Hussain

Answer: (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar said this in the Constituent Assembly about the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q177. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system?

(A) Planets
(B) Comets
(C) Asteroids
(D) Nebulae

Answer: (D) Nebulae
Explanation: Nebulae are huge clouds of gas and dust in interstellar space, outside the solar system.

Q178. The plants which grow on saline soil are known as

(A) xerophytes
(B) hydrophytes
(C) succulents
(D) halophytes

Answer: (D) halophytes
Explanation: Halophytes (e.g. mangroves) are adapted to salty soil and water.

Q179. Which of the following colours of light undergoes the least deviation while passing through a prism?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue

Answer: (A) Red
Explanation: Red has the longest wavelength and the lowest refractive index in glass, so it deviates least.

Q180. The world’s largest telescope is in which country?

(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) United States of America

Answer: (C) China
Explanation: China’s FAST (Five-hundred-metre Aperture Spherical Telescope) in Guizhou is the world’s largest single-dish radio telescope.

Q181. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on

(A) 5 June
(B) 5 July
(C) 5 May
(D) 5 March

Answer: (A) 5 June
Explanation: World Environment Day has been observed on 5 June every year since 1974.

Q182. Due to which of the following can we not see clearly during a fog?

(A) Scattering of light
(B) Reflection
(C) Internal reflection
(D) Refraction

Answer: (A) Scattering of light
Explanation: Fog droplets scatter light in all directions, which reduces visibility.

Q183. Which of the following represents a billion characters?

(A) Kilobytes
(B) Gigabytes
(C) Terabytes
(D) Megabytes

Answer: (B) Gigabytes
Explanation: One character takes one byte, and a billion (10⁹) bytes is about one gigabyte.

Q184. What was the early capital of Magadh?

(A) Vaishali
(B) Champa
(C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
(D) Pataliputra

Answer: (C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
Explanation: Rajgriha (Girivraja) was the first capital of Magadha; the capital later moved to Pataliputra.

Q185. Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environment friendly?

(A) Biogas
(B) Ethanol
(C) CNG
(D) Hydrogen

Answer: (D) Hydrogen
Explanation: Burning hydrogen produces only water, with no carbon emissions.

Q186. The ‘World Wetlands Day’ is celebrated on which day?

(A) 2nd March
(B) 22nd March
(C) 2nd February
(D) 22nd May

Answer: (C) 2nd February
Explanation: World Wetlands Day is on 2 February, the anniversary of the 1971 Ramsar Convention.

Q187. “Durand Cup” is associated with which of the following games?

(A) Polo
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey

Answer: (B) Football
Explanation: The Durand Cup (started 1888) is one of the oldest football tournaments in the world.

Q188. “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” Who said?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave this famous slogan.

Q189. In the Constitution of India, the Right to Free and Compulsory Elementary Education is included in the section on

(A) Human Rights
(B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
Explanation: The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 a Fundamental Right.

Q190. The number of chromosomes in the human body is

(A) 48
(B) 46
(C) 44
(D) 42

Answer: (B) 46
Explanation: Human body cells have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).

Q191. The Speaker of Lok Sabha in India is elected by the

(A) Council of Ministers
(B) All Speakers of State Legislative Assemblies
(C) Members of Lok Sabha
(D) Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (C) Members of Lok Sabha
Explanation: Under Article 93, the Lok Sabha elects its Speaker from among its own members.

Q192. Which of the following is a major source of oceanic salinity?

(A) Land
(B) Rivers
(C) Ash from volcanoes
(D) Wind

Answer: (B) Rivers
Explanation: Rivers carry dissolved salts weathered from rocks on land into the oceans.

Q193. Which strait connects the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean?

(A) Malacca
(B) Bosporus
(C) Hormuz
(D) Bab-el-Mandeb

Answer: (D) Bab-el-Mandeb
Explanation: The Bab-el-Mandeb strait links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean. (Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.)

Q194. Which of the following is a Harappan port?

(A) Mahasthangarh
(B) Nagapattanam
(C) Lothal
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Lothal
Explanation: Lothal in Gujarat had a dockyard and was an important port of the Harappan civilisation.

Q195. At present (2019) the Constitution of India comprises

(A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles, 25 Parts and 8 Schedules
(C) 372 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
Explanation: The original Constitution had 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 8 Schedules; by 2019 it had 25 Parts and 12 Schedules, and about 465 Articles counting inserted ones such as 21A.

Q196. Which of the following is not used in making solar cells?

(A) Silicon
(B) Platinum
(C) Gallium
(D) Germanium

Answer: (B) Platinum
Explanation: Solar cells use semiconductors such as silicon, gallium (arsenide) and germanium. Platinum is a metal, not a semiconductor.

Q197. Which Article of the Constitution of India is related to Right to Equality before law?

(A) Article 15
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17

Answer: (B) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.

Q198. The brain of any computer is

(A) ALU
(B) CPU
(C) Memory
(D) Control Unit (CU)

Answer: (B) CPU
Explanation: The CPU processes all instructions and controls the other parts, so it is called the brain of the computer.

Q199. At constant temperature, the speed of sound is maximum in which of the following gases?

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) In all these gases equal

Answer: (A) Hydrogen
Explanation: At a given temperature the speed of sound is inversely proportional to √(molar mass); hydrogen is the lightest gas, so sound travels fastest in it.

Q200. ‘National Emergency’ may be declared by the President of India in line with

(A) Article 352
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 395

Answer: (A) Article 352
Explanation: Article 352 deals with a national emergency on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

2019 (Set H) (Q201–250)

These 50 questions are Part I (General Knowledge & Other Skills) of the Bihar STET Computer Science paper 2019 (Set H).

Q201. Who said, “The Principles (Directive Principles) should be made the basis of all the future legislation”?

(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. B. N. Rao
(D) Dr. Zakir Hussain

Answer: (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar told the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles should be the basis of all future executive and legislative action.

Q202. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system?

(A) Planets
(B) Comets
(C) Asteroids
(D) Nebulae

Answer: (D) Nebulae
Explanation: Nebulae are clouds of gas and dust in interstellar space, outside the solar system.

Q203. The plants which grow on saline soil are known as

(A) xerophytes
(B) hydrophytes
(C) succulents
(D) halophytes

Answer: (D) halophytes
Explanation: Halophytes (e.g. mangroves) are salt-tolerant plants that grow in saline soil.

Q204. Which of the following colours of light undergoes the least deviation while passing through a prism?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue

Answer: (A) Red
Explanation: Red light has the longest wavelength and the lowest refractive index in glass, so it deviates the least.

Q205. The world’s largest telescope is in which country?

(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) United States of America

Answer: (C) China
Explanation: China’s FAST (500 m aperture spherical radio telescope) was the world’s largest single-dish telescope in 2019.

Q206. Pointing towards Garima, Rakesh said, “His father is the only son of my father.” How is Rakesh related to Garima?

(A) Brother
(B) Father
(C) Uncle
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Father
Explanation: The only son of Rakesh’s father is Rakesh himself, so Rakesh is Garima’s father.

Q207. Samir went 15 m to the west from his house and then turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned east and walked 25 m and finally turning left covered 20 m. How far was he from his house?

(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 40 m
(D) 80 m

Answer: (B) 10 m
Explanation: West 15, south 20, east 25, north 20: he ends 25 − 15 = 10 m east of his house.

Q208. If DEEP is coded in a symbolic language as 60 and RABIT as 100, then how will HAIR be coded?

(A) 27
(B) 72
(C) 90
(D) 160

Answer: (B) 72
Explanation: Code = 2 × (sum of letter positions): DEEP = 2 × 30 = 60, RABIT = 2 × 50 = 100, HAIR = 2 × (8+1+9+18) = 72.

Q209. If ‘x’ means ‘−’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘÷’, then 8 ÷ 4 x 2 − 4 + 2 = ?

(A) 2
(B) 28
(C) 32
(D) 36

Answer: (C) 32
Explanation: After substitution: 8 × 4 − 2 + 4 ÷ 2 = 32 − 2 + 2 = 32.

Q210. Find the missing number in the figure: a circle is divided into six sectors containing 8, 27, 64, 125, 216 and ?

(A) 4
(B) 305
(C) 343
(D) 729

Answer: (C) 343
Explanation: The numbers are cubes: 2³, 3³, 4³, 5³, 6³, so the missing number is 7³ = 343.

Q211. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on

(A) 5 June
(B) 5 July
(C) 5 May
(D) 5 March

Answer: (A) 5 June
Explanation: World Environment Day is observed every year on 5 June.

Q212. Due to which of the following can we not see during a fog?

(A) Scattering of light
(B) Reflection
(C) Internal reflection
(D) Refraction

Answer: (A) Scattering of light
Explanation: Fog droplets scatter light in all directions, so light from objects does not reach our eyes clearly.

Q213. Which of the following represents a billion characters?

(A) Kilobytes
(B) Gigabytes
(C) Terabytes
(D) Megabytes

Answer: (B) Gigabytes
Explanation: One gigabyte ≈ 10⁹ bytes, and one byte stores one character.

Q214. What was the early capital of Magadh?

(A) Vaishali
(B) Champa
(C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
(D) Pataliputra

Answer: (C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
Explanation: Rajgriha (Girivraja) was Magadha’s first capital; it later moved to Pataliputra.

Q215. Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environment friendly?

(A) Biogas
(B) Ethanol
(C) CNG
(D) Hydrogen

Answer: (D) Hydrogen
Explanation: Burning hydrogen produces only water and no carbon emissions.

Q216. Among the following, whom did K. K. Foundation on May 16, 2019 announce as the winner of the 28th Bihari Puraskar?

(A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
(B) Leeladhar Jagudi
(C) Keerti Parihar
(D) None of them

Answer: (A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
Explanation: The K. K. Birla Foundation gave the 28th Bihari Puraskar to Manisha Kulshreshtha for her novel ‘Swapnpash’.

Q217. The 54th Jnanpith Award was given to which English writer, in New Delhi on June 12, 2019?

(A) Sunil Shrivastava
(B) Amitav Ghosh
(C) Yuvraj Bhattarai
(D) Leeladhar Jagudi

Answer: (B) Amitav Ghosh
Explanation: Amitav Ghosh was the first English-language writer to receive the Jnanpith Award (54th, 2018).

Q218. Among the following, who was the Chief Election Commissioner of India at present (2019)?

(A) Ashok Lavasa
(B) Sunil Arora
(C) Sushil Chandra
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Sunil Arora
Explanation: Sunil Arora was the Chief Election Commissioner from December 2018 to April 2021.

Q219. The minimum pension provided to farmers attaining the age of 60 years to all small and marginal farmers (SMF) by the Central Government from May 31, 2019 is

(A) Rs. 2000 per month
(B) Rs. 3000 per month
(C) Rs. 4000 per month
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Rs. 3000 per month
Explanation: Under the PM Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana, small and marginal farmers get a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after age 60.

Q220. The winner of the world mixed team badminton championship Sudirman Cup 2019 is

(A) India
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) China
Explanation: China beat Japan in the final of the 2019 Sudirman Cup at Nanning.

Q221. Which of the following is not used in making solar cells?

(A) Silicon
(B) Platinum
(C) Gallium
(D) Germanium

Answer: (B) Platinum
Explanation: Solar cells use semiconductors such as silicon, gallium (arsenide) and germanium; platinum is a metal, not a semiconductor.

Q222. Which Article of the Constitution of India is related to Right to Equality before law?

(A) Article 15
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17

Answer: (B) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of the laws.

Q223. The brain of any computer is

(A) ALU
(B) CPU
(C) Memory
(D) Control Unit (CU)

Answer: (B) CPU
Explanation: The CPU processes all instructions and controls the other parts, so it is called the brain of the computer.

Q224. At constant temperature, the speed of sound is maximum in which of the following gases?

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) In all these gases equal

Answer: (A) Hydrogen
Explanation: The speed of sound in a gas varies as 1/√(molar mass); hydrogen is the lightest gas, so sound travels fastest in it.

Q225. ‘National Emergency’ may be declared by the President of India in line with

(A) Article 352
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 395

Answer: (A) Article 352
Explanation: Article 352 provides for a National Emergency on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

Q226. The ‘World Wetlands Day’ is celebrated on which day?

(A) 2nd March
(B) 22nd March
(C) 2nd February
(D) 22nd May

Answer: (C) 2nd February
Explanation: World Wetlands Day is on 2 February, the date the Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971.

Q227. “Durand Cup” is associated with which of the following games?

(A) Polo
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey

Answer: (B) Football
Explanation: The Durand Cup (started in 1888) is one of the oldest football tournaments in the world.

Q228. “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” Who said?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation: This famous slogan was given by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Q229. In the Constitution of India, Right to Free and Compulsory Elementary Education is included in the section on

(A) Human Rights
(B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
(C) Directive Principles of States Policy
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
Explanation: The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for ages 6–14 a Fundamental Right.

Q230. The number of chromosomes in the human body are

(A) 48
(B) 46
(C) 44
(D) 42

Answer: (B) 46
Explanation: A human body cell has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).

Q231. The average of 20 numbers is 15 and the average of first five numbers is 12. The average of the rest is

(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 13

Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: Total = 300; first five = 60; remaining 15 numbers = 240, so their average = 16.

Q232. If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 7 and C : D = 8 : 9, then A : D is equal to

(A) 3 : 7
(B) 7 : 3
(C) 21 : 10
(D) 10 : 21

Answer: (D) 10 : 21
Explanation: A : D = (3 × 5 × 8) : (4 × 7 × 9) = 120 : 252 = 10 : 21.

Q233. The perimeter of a rectangle is 160 metre, and the difference of two sides is 48 metre. Find the side of a square whose area is equal to the area of this rectangle.

(A) 32 m
(B) 8 m
(C) 4 m
(D) 16 m

Answer: (A) 32 m
Explanation: l + b = 80 and l − b = 48 give l = 64, b = 16; area = 1024 m², so the square’s side = √1024 = 32 m.

Q234. A man walking at the rate of 5 km/hr crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the bridge (in metres) is

(A) 600
(B) 750
(C) 1000
(D) 1250

Answer: (D) 1250
Explanation: Distance = 5 km/h × (15/60) h = 1.25 km = 1250 m.

Q235. If A is an acute angle and cot A + cosec A = 3, then the value of sin A is

(A) 1
(B) 4/5
(C) 3/5
(D) 0

Answer: (C) 3/5
Explanation: (1 + cos A)/sin A = 3 gives cot(A/2) = 3, so tan(A/2) = 1/3 and sin A = 2t/(1 + t²) = (2/3)/(10/9) = 3/5.

Q236. The Speaker of Lok Sabha in India is elected by the

(A) Council of Ministers
(B) All Speakers of State Legislative Assemblies
(C) Members of Lok Sabha
(D) Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Answer: (C) Members of Lok Sabha
Explanation: Under Article 93, the members of the Lok Sabha elect the Speaker from among themselves.

Q237. Which of the following is a major source of oceanic salinity?

(A) Land
(B) Rivers
(C) Ash from volcanoes
(D) Wind

Answer: (B) Rivers
Explanation: Most of the ocean’s salt comes from weathered rocks on land, carried to the sea by rivers.

Q238. Which strait connects Red Sea and Indian Ocean?

(A) Malacca
(B) Bosporus
(C) Hormuz
(D) Bab-el-Mandeb

Answer: (D) Bab-el-Mandeb
Explanation: The Bab-el-Mandeb strait links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean.

Q239. Which of the following is a Harappan port?

(A) Mahasthangarh
(B) Nagapattanam
(C) Lothal
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Lothal
Explanation: Lothal in Gujarat had a dockyard and was a major Harappan port.

Q240. At present the Constitution of India comprises

(A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles, 25 Parts and 8 Schedules
(C) 372 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
Explanation: After many amendments the Constitution had about 465 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules (the original had 395 articles, 22 parts and 8 schedules).

Q241. Which option will take the place of (?) in the following letter pattern? JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ?

(A) OEP
(B) NEO
(C) MEN
(D) PFQ

Answer: (B) NEO
Explanation: Each letter moves one step forward: M→N, D→E, N→O, giving NEO.

Q242. Which number will take the place of (?) in the following number series? 16, 23, 31, 40, 50, 61, ?

(A) 73
(B) 77
(C) 83
(D) 81

Answer: (A) 73
Explanation: Differences are 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, so the next is 61 + 12 = 73.

Q243. [Figure-based question] How many triangles are there in the following figure? (A triangle with a line drawn from each vertex to the opposite side, all three lines meeting at one point.)

(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 7

Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: A triangle divided by three such lines (cevians) through a common point contains 16 triangles in total.

Q244. If ‘Sand’ is coded as ‘Brick’, ‘Brick’ as ‘House’, ‘House’ as ‘Temple’, ‘Temple’ as ‘Palace’, then where do you worship?

(A) Palace
(B) Temple
(C) Brick
(D) House

Answer: (A) Palace
Explanation: We worship in a temple, and ‘Temple’ is coded as ‘Palace’.

Q245. In a certain code language, LIGHT is written as JGEFR. How will SHORT be written in that language?

(A) FQMPR
(B) QFMPR
(C) FQMRP
(D) QFMRP

Answer: (B) QFMPR
Explanation: Each letter moves two steps back: S→Q, H→F, O→M, R→P, T→R, giving QFMPR.

Q246. A number being divided by 52 gives remainder 45. If the number is divided by 13, the remainder will be

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 7

Answer: (B) 6
Explanation: N = 52k + 45. Since 52 is divisible by 13, the remainder is 45 mod 13 = 6.

Q247. Which of the following is the largest number? √2, ∛3, ∜4, ⁶√6

(A) √2
(B) ∛3
(C) ∜4
(D) ⁶√6

Answer: (B) ∛3
Explanation: Raising each to the 12th power gives 64, 81, 64 and 36, so ∛3 is the largest.

Q248. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their LCM is 120. The sum of the numbers is

(A) 70
(B) 35
(C) 140
(D) 105

Answer: (A) 70
Explanation: The numbers are 3x and 4x with LCM 12x = 120, so x = 10; the numbers are 30 and 40 and their sum is 70.

Q249. When 60 is subtracted from 60% of a number, the result is 60. The number is

(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 180
(D) 200

Answer: (D) 200
Explanation: 0.6N − 60 = 60 gives 0.6N = 120, so N = 200.

Q250. If the cost price of 15 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books, the loss per cent is

(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 25

Answer: (D) 25
Explanation: Let CP of 1 book = 1; CP of 20 books = 20 and SP = 15, so loss = 5/20 × 100 = 25%.

How to Prepare

• Do the reasoning and maths questions with a pen. They take time in the exam, so practise for speed.
• For static GK, focus on Bihar, the national movement and the Constitution. These come up repeatedly.
• Skip the old current affairs answers when revising; the facts may have changed since the exam.
• There is no negative marking, so answer every question.
• Take timed mock tests on the ExamYaari app before your exam day.

More Bihar STET Practice

• All Bihar STET Computer Science previous year papers (2019–2025)
• Bihar STET Teaching Aptitude previous year questions
• बिहार STET सामान्य जागरूकता और तर्कशक्ति प्रश्न (हिंदी में)

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)