BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies Question Paper (Class 9–10, 21 July 2024) with Official Answers

BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies question paper (Class 9–10, 21 July 2024): all 40 GS questions in English with BPSC’s official final answers and a short explanation for each.

These questions are from the Class 9–10 ‘Language, General Studies and Science’ booklet (Series E). The Hindi and Mathematics keys for the same sitting give identical GS answers, so this GS part was common to the Class 9–10 subjects that day.

BPSC TRE 4.0 is now open for 33,320 teacher posts, including 4,370 for Class 9–10. General Studies counts towards your merit whatever your subject, so it’s a good place to start practising.

Table of Contents

• Exam overview
• BPSC TRE 4.0 at a glance
• GS questions with answers (Q31–70)
• How to prepare for GS
• FAQs

BPSC TRE 3.0 Class 9–10: Exam Overview

Exam	BPSC School Teacher (Re-)Examination, TRE 3.0 (Advt. No. 22/2024)
Conducting body	Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC)
Class level	Class 9–10
Exam date	21 July 2024
General Studies	40 questions (Q31–70)
Options	Five per question; (D) is usually ‘More than one of the above’ and (E) ‘None of the above’
Answers on this page	BPSC Final Answer Key (3 October 2024), booklet Series E
Deleted by BPSC	Q62

BPSC TRE 4.0 at a Glance

Advertisement	No. 15/2026 (replaces Advt. 14/2026)
Total posts	33,320
Class 9–10 posts	4,370
Last date to apply	3 November 2026 (fee by 2 November)
Exam date	Not announced yet

BPSC TRE 3.0 GS Questions with Answers (Q31–70)

Question numbers are as in the original booklet (Series E). Answers follow BPSC’s final answer key; the explanations are written by the ExamYaari team.

Q31. A player makes 7 complete revolutions of a circular path to complete a race of 2200 metres. The radius of the circular path is: (π = 22/7)

(A) 42 metres
(B) 45 metres
(C) 50 metres
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 50 metres
Explanation: One round = 2200 ÷ 7 = 2πr, so 2 × (22/7) × r = 2200/7, which gives r = 50 m.

Q32. If the capacity of a cylindrical tank is 1848 m³ and the diameter of its base is 14 m, the depth of the tank is: (π = 22/7)

(A) 8 m
(B) 12 m
(C) 16 m
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) 12 m
Explanation: Base area = (22/7) × 7² = 154 m². Depth = 1848 ÷ 154 = 12 m.

Q33. If 1/8th of a number is 30, what will be 62% of that number?

(A) 181.3
(B) 178.24
(C) 148.8
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 148.8
Explanation: The number is 30 × 8 = 240, and 62% of 240 = 148.8.

Q34. The salary of an officer is increased by 25%. By what percent should the new salary be decreased to restore the original salary?

(A) 25
(B) 22.5
(C) 20
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 20
Explanation: 100 becomes 125. To return to 100 we cut 25 out of 125, which is 25/125 × 100 = 20%.

Q35. By what number should (−2/3)⁻³ be divided so that the quotient is (4/9)⁻²?

(A) 2/3
(B) −2/3
(C) −3/2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) −2/3
Explanation: (−2/3)⁻³ = −27/8 and (4/9)⁻² = 81/16. The divisor = (−27/8) ÷ (81/16) = −2/3.

Q36. If x + 1/x = 5, what is the value of x⁴ + 1/x⁴?

(A) 525
(B) 527
(C) 529
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) 527
Explanation: x² + 1/x² = 5² − 2 = 23, so x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 23² − 2 = 527.

Q37. A bag contains 5-rupee, 2-rupee and 1-rupee coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The total value of all the coins is ₹2,000. How many coins of 2-rupee are there in the bag?

(A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 400
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Value = 2k×5 + 3k×2 + 4k×1 = 20k = 2000, so k = 100 and there are 3k = 300 two-rupee coins. 300 is not an option, so the answer is (E).

Q38. The interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds its exterior angle by 108°. How many sides does the polygon have?

(A) 10
(B) 9
(C) 8
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 10
Explanation: Interior + exterior = 180° and interior − exterior = 108°, so the exterior angle is 36°. Sides = 360 ÷ 36 = 10.

Q39. Zinc Oxide is normally used in the manufacture of

(A) Paints
(B) Explosives
(C) Solvents
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Paints
Explanation: Zinc oxide is a white pigment (zinc white) widely used in paints; it is also used in rubber, ointments and cosmetics.

Q40. Lenz’s law is derived from the law of conservation of

(A) Magnetism
(B) Momentum
(C) Charge
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Lenz’s law follows from the law of conservation of energy, which is not among the options, so the answer is (E).

Q41. Glycogen stored in liver and muscles of human body is in form of

(A) Monosaccharide
(B) Polysaccharide
(C) Protein
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Polysaccharide
Explanation: Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of many glucose units; it is the body’s stored form of glucose.

Q42. In which of the following blood has defective haemoglobin?

(A) Haematoma
(B) Sickle cell Anaemia
(C) Haemophilia
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Sickle cell Anaemia
Explanation: In sickle cell anaemia a gene change produces abnormal haemoglobin (HbS), which makes red blood cells sickle-shaped. Haemophilia is a clotting disorder.

Q43. In which of the following medicine production, ethyl alcohol can be used?

(A) Antiseptic
(B) Antipyretic
(C) Anti-allergic
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Antiseptic
Explanation: Ethyl alcohol (about 70%) kills germs, so it is used in antiseptics such as hand sanitisers and wound cleaners. BPSC’s final key marks (A).

Q44. Velocity of sound at 15°C and 380mm pressure is 340m. sec⁻¹. If the pressure is doubled without change of temperature, the velocity of sound would become

(A) 680m. sec⁻¹
(B) 170m. sec⁻¹
(C) 190m. sec
(D) 340m. sec⁻¹
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) 340m. sec⁻¹
Explanation: At constant temperature, the speed of sound in a gas does not depend on pressure (pressure and density change together), so it stays 340 m s⁻¹.

Q45. If a bacterium cell divides in every 15 min, how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours.

(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 64
(D) 256
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) 256
Explanation: 2 hours = 120 min = 8 divisions of 15 min. Each division doubles the count, so 1 cell becomes 2⁸ = 256.

Q46. Plants and animal cell differ in which of the following structure?

(A) Enzymes
(B) Nuclei
(C) Cell wall
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Cell wall
Explanation: Plant cells have a cell wall made of cellulose; animal cells do not. Both have enzymes and a nucleus.

Q47. According to the recent report of forbes, which is the strongest currency in the world?

(A) Omani Rial
(B) Kuwaiti Dinar
(C) Bahrain Dinar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Kuwaiti Dinar
Explanation: The Kuwaiti Dinar has the highest value against the US dollar and topped Forbes’ list of the strongest currencies.

Q48. In which city of Maharashtra did PM Narendra Modi launch 8 AMRUT projects?

(A) Kollam
(B) Baroda
(C) Solapur
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Solapur
Explanation: In January 2024, PM Modi laid the foundation of 8 AMRUT projects in Solapur, Maharashtra. Kollam is in Kerala and Baroda in Gujarat.

Q49. IIT Madras has tied up with whom to launch e Mobility Simulation Lab?

(A) Altair
(B) Starlink
(C) Farber Speciality Lab
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Altair
Explanation: IIT Madras set up the e-Mobility Simulation Lab with Altair, a simulation software company, in early 2024.

Q50. Who won the Best Actor Award at the Academy Awards 2024 (Oscars)?

(A) Dwayne Johnson
(B) Cillian Murphy
(C) Tom Cruise
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Cillian Murphy
Explanation: Cillian Murphy won Best Actor at the 2024 Oscars for playing J. Robert Oppenheimer in ‘Oppenheimer’.

Q51. Who was recently selected as the ICC Women’s T20i Cricketer of the year 2023?

(A) Smriti Mandhana (India)
(B) Nat Seiver – Brunt (England)
(C) Hayley Mathews (West Indies)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Hayley Mathews (West Indies)
Explanation: West Indies captain Hayley Matthews was named ICC Women’s T20I Cricketer of the Year 2023.

Q52. Who was Crowned Miss World 2024 in Mumbai?

(A) Miss Czech Kristina Pishkova
(B) Miss India Sini Shetty
(C) Miss Lebanon Yasmina Zaytoun
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Miss Czech Kristina Pishkova
Explanation: Krystyna Pyszková of the Czech Republic won the 71st Miss World, held in Mumbai in March 2024. Yasmina Zaytoun was first runner-up.

Q53. In which country will the clean Energy Investor Forum be organised by IPEF?

(A) France
(B) Singapore
(C) Spain
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Singapore
Explanation: The first IPEF (Indo-Pacific Economic Framework) Clean Economy Investor Forum was held in Singapore in June 2024.

Q54. India has acquired the right to operate the foreign Sittwe Port, it is in which country?

(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Myanmar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Myanmar
Explanation: Sittwe Port is in Rakhine State, Myanmar, and was built by India under the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project.

Q55. Mangrove forest of Ganga Delta is called

(A) Sunderban
(B) Sundergarh
(C) Surendranagar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Sunderban
Explanation: The mangrove forest of the Ganga–Brahmaputra delta is the Sundarbans, named after the Sundari tree.

Q56. Which river is frequently changing its course of flow in Bihar

(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
(C) Punpun
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Kosi
Explanation: The Kosi shifts its course often and causes floods, which is why it is called the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.

Q57. Plant roots gets water from soil as –

(A) Bound water
(B) Hygroscopic water
(C) Capillary water
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Capillary water
Explanation: Capillary water, held in the small pores between soil particles, is the water roots can absorb. Hygroscopic and bound water are held too tightly.

Q58. How much equatorial diameter is larger than polar diameter?

(A) 36 km
(B) 43 km
(C) 49 km
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) 43 km
Explanation: Earth’s equatorial diameter (about 12,756 km) is about 43 km more than its polar diameter (about 12,714 km).

Q59. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is taken at which longitude –

(A) 82.5° E
(B) 78.5° E
(C) 87.5° E
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 82.5° E
Explanation: IST is based on the 82.5° E meridian, which passes near Mirzapur (Prayagraj region) and is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of GMT.

Q60. In India ‘Green revolution’ is known to credit to whom?

(A) Dr. V. Kurian
(B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(C) Sri. S.L. Bahuguna
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
Explanation: Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is called the father of India’s Green Revolution. Dr. V. Kurien led the White Revolution (milk).

Q61. Highest Mountain peak of India is known as

(A) Everest
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) K-2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) K-2
Explanation: As per India’s official map, K2 (8,611 m, in Ladakh/Gilgit-Baltistan) is India’s highest peak. Everest is in Nepal; Kanchenjunga is the highest peak fully within India’s administered area.

Q62. Indian continent was earlier part of

(A) Gondwanaland
(B) Tethys
(C) Pangea
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: Question deleted (BPSC removed it in the final answer key)
Explanation: BPSC deleted this question in the final answer key. (India was part of Gondwanaland, which itself was part of Pangea, so more than one option could be argued.)

Q63. Who led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar?

(A) Tatya Tope
(B) Kunwar Singh
(C) Nana Saheb
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Kunwar Singh
Explanation: Babu Kunwar Singh of Jagdishpur led the 1857 revolt in Bihar. Tatya Tope and Nana Saheb led it around Kanpur.

Q64. The spiritual side of nationalism was voiced by

(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Swami Shraddhanand
(C) Swami Vivekananda
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Swami Vivekananda
Explanation: Swami Vivekananda linked national pride with India’s spiritual heritage and is seen as the voice of spiritual nationalism.

Q65. Which newspaper propagated strong nationalist views during India’s freedom struggle?

(A) Pioneer
(B) Amrit Bazar Patrika
(C) Statesman
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Amrit Bazar Patrika
Explanation: Amrita Bazar Patrika, founded by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh, was a leading nationalist paper. The Pioneer and The Statesman were British-owned.

Q66. Who intervened in a dispute between the workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad in 1918?

(A) Vallabhbhai Patel
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jamshedji Tata
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: In the 1918 Ahmedabad mill strike, Mahatma Gandhi supported the workers and went on his first hunger strike in India.

Q67. Name the left-wing leader of Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha who popularised this in Bihar?

(A) Karyanand Sharma
(B) Wadhwa Ram
(C) P.C. Joshi
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Karyanand Sharma
Explanation: Karyanand Sharma was a left-wing peasant leader who spread the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha’s movement, notably in Monghyr (Munger). P.C. Joshi led the Communist Party at the national level.

Q68. Muddiman Committee was appointed to report on the working of the

(A) Dyarchy
(B) Communal representation
(C) Federalism
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Dyarchy
Explanation: The Muddiman Committee (1924) examined the working of dyarchy in the provinces under the Government of India Act, 1919.

Q69. “He was a great unifier in India who taught us not only bare tolerance of others but the willing acceptance of them as our friends and comrades in common undertakings” who said it?

(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Balgangadhar Tilak
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the quote is by none of the three listed leaders, so the answer is (E).

Q70. Who proceeded to organise the Provisional Government of Free India outside the country?

(A) Raja Mahendra Pratap
(B) Rash Behari Bose
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Rash Behari Bose
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key the answer is Rash Behari Bose, who built the Indian Independence League and the first INA in South-East Asia that led to this government. Note that Subhas Chandra Bose formally proclaimed the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind) in Singapore in 1943, and Raja Mahendra Pratap had set up a Provisional Government of India in Kabul in 1915.

How to Prepare for BPSC TRE General Studies

• Work out every maths question on paper. (E) None of the above is often the answer, so check your result rather than picking the closest option.
• Read options (D) and (E) carefully. They are real answers in TRE, not fillers.
• Give extra time to Bihar: districts, crops, and Bihar’s role in the freedom struggle.
• Revise current affairs from the 12 months before your exam.
• Practise timed mock tests on the ExamYaari app.

More BPSC TRE Resources

• All BPSC TRE General Studies question papers
• यही प्रश्न पत्र हिंदी में देखें
• BPSC TRE 4.0 Recruitment 2026
• BPSC TRE 4.0 Syllabus 2026

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)