Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 3 November 2025 (Shift 2) with Answers

Looking for the Bihar STET Computer Science question paper 2025? Here is the complete Paper II (Class 11-12) Computer Science paper of the exam held on 3 November 2025 (Shift 2), with the correct answer and a short explanation for every question. All 150 questions are given as text, so you can practise them online, revise topic by topic and get a feel for the real exam pattern.

Note: These answers were prepared and checked by the ExamYaari team. They are not the official BSEB answer key. If you think an answer is wrong, tell us in the comments.

हिंदी में पढ़ें: बिहार STET कंप्यूटर साइंस प्रश्न पत्र 3 नवंबर 2025 (शिफ्ट 2) हिंदी में

Table of Contents

• Exam Overview
• Topic-wise Analysis
• Part I: Computer Science (Q1–100)
• Part II: Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)
• Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)
• More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers
• FAQs

Bihar STET Computer Science 2025: Exam Overview

Exam	Bihar STET 2025 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)
Conducting Body	Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB)
Paper	Paper II (Class 11-12), Computer Science (Subject Code 226)
Exam Date	3 November 2025
Shift / Time	Shift 2 (2:00 PM – 4:30 PM)
Total Questions	150 MCQs
Part 1	Part I: Computer Science: Q1–100
Part 2	Part II: Teaching Aptitude: Q101–130
Part 3	Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning: Q131–150

Topic-wise Analysis of Computer Science Questions

Here is roughly how the 100 Computer Science questions in this paper are spread across the syllabus. Use it to decide which topics to revise first.

Topic	No. of Questions
Data Structures & Algorithms	16
Database & SQL	13
Computer Networks & Internet	13
OOP Concepts	11
Digital Electronics & COA	9
Operating System	7
Theory of Computation	6
Other Topics	5
Cyber Security & Ethics	4
E-commerce & IT Fundamentals	3
Web Technology & HTML	3
Software Engineering	3
IoT & Emerging Tech	2
Python Programming	2
Image Processing & Multimedia	2
Computer Fundamentals & History	1

Part I: Computer Science (Q1–100)

Q1. Cat-5, Cat-5E and Cat-6 are examples of which of the following cables ?

(A) Coaxial Cable
(B) Shielded Twisted Pair Cable
(C) Fiber Optic cable
(D) Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable

Answer: (D) Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
Explanation: Cat-5, Cat-5e and Cat-6 are categories of Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable used in Ethernet LANs.

Q2. In the context of minimum spanning trees, the “cut property” is used to justify the correctness of Prim’s algorithm. What does the cut property state?

(A) The algorithm always cuts the maximum weight edge.
(B) The algorithm always cuts the minimum weight edge.
(C) The algorithm always cuts an edge crossing the cut with the minimum weight.
(D) The algorithm always cuts an edge crossing the cut with the maximum weight.

Answer: (C) The algorithm always cuts an edge crossing the cut with the minimum weight.
Explanation: The cut property says the minimum-weight edge crossing any cut belongs to some MST, which is why Prim’s greedy choice is safe.

Q3. Aggregate functions can be used with………….clause. They can not be used with……… clause.

(A) WHERE, HAVING
(B) HAVING, WHERE
(C) GROUP BY, HAVING
(D) SELECT, HAVING

Answer: (B) HAVING, WHERE
Explanation: Aggregate functions can be used in the HAVING clause but not in the WHERE clause, because WHERE filters rows before grouping.

Q4. The concept of NP-Completeness was introduced by:

(A) Stephen Cook
(B) Richard Karp
(C) Donald Knuth
(D) John Nash

Answer: (A) Stephen Cook
Explanation: Stephen Cook introduced NP-completeness in 1971 (Cook’s theorem); Karp later showed 21 problems to be NP-complete.

Q5. ISO 9000 and SEI CMM are both frameworks related to:

(A) Network protocols
(B) Software architecture
(C) Software quality standards and process improvement
(D) Software development languages

Answer: (C) Software quality standards and process improvement
Explanation: ISO 9000 and SEI CMM are frameworks for software quality standards and process improvement.

Q6. Which among the followings is/ are true as per the ZigBee standards?

(A) Low power consumption
(B) Low data rate
(C) Low range
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: ZigBee (IEEE 802.15.4) is designed for low power use, low data rate and short range.

Q7. The minimum number of edges in a spanning tree of a connected graph with “n” vertices is:

(A) n
(B) n – 1
(C) n + 1
(D) n(n-1)/2

Answer: (B) n – 1
Explanation: A spanning tree on n vertices always has exactly n − 1 edges.

Q8. Divide and Conquer is an algorithmic paradigm that solves problems by:

(A) Iteratively solving subproblems
(B) Recursively solving subproblems
(C) Using heuristics to find solutions
(D) Greedily combining solutions

Answer: (B) Recursively solving subproblems
Explanation: Divide and conquer splits a problem into subproblems, solves them recursively and combines the results.

Q9. A) Knowledge base (KB) is consists of set of statements. B) Inference is deriving a new sentence from the KB. Choose the correct option.

(A) A is True, B is True
(B) A is False, B is False
(C) A is True, B is false
(D) A is false, B is True

Answer: (A) A is True, B is True
Explanation: A knowledge base is a set of sentences (statements), and inference derives new sentences from it, so both statements are true.

Q10. Which concept allows a class to inherit properties and behaviors from multiple classes?

(A) Encapsulation
(B) Inheritance
(C) Polymorphism
(D) Multiple Inheritance

Answer: (D) Multiple Inheritance
Explanation: Multiple inheritance lets a class inherit from more than one parent class.

Q11. Sangeeta asks her colleague for her project work and then copies the entire work and submits it to her team leader claiming it to be her own work. The act performed by Sangeeta is known as _________________ .

(A) Phishing
(B) Plagiarism
(C) Spamming
(D) Virus

Answer: (B) Plagiarism
Explanation: Copying someone else’s work and submitting it as your own is plagiarism.

Q12. What is the default format of data in MySQL?

(A) DD-MM-YYYY
(B) MM-DD-YYYY
(C) YYYY-MM-DD
(D) YYYY-DD-MM

Answer: (C) YYYY-MM-DD
Explanation: MySQL stores and displays DATE values in the format YYYY-MM-DD.

Q13. Which of the following is true for the language: { ap| p is a prime}

(A) It is regular but not context-free
(B) It is neither regular nor context-free, but accepted by a Turing machine
(C) It is not accepted by a Turing Machine
(D) It is context-free but not regular

Answer: (B) It is neither regular nor context-free, but accepted by a Turing machine
Explanation: {a^p | p is prime} is not context-free (provable with the pumping lemma), but a Turing machine can decide it.

Q14. Debugging is the process of:

(A) Creating new software modules
(B) Removing defects from software
(C) Analysing software requirements
(D) Generating test cases

Answer: (B) Removing defects from software
Explanation: Debugging means locating and removing defects (bugs) from software.

Q15. RFID is used for?

(A) 3G Connectivity
(B) Measuring WiFi strength
(C) Providing WiFi Connection
(D) Object Identification

Answer: (D) Object Identification
Explanation: RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) is used to identify and track objects using tags.

Q16. Upward multiplexing involves:

(A) Combining multiple data streams into one
(B) Distributing data to different physical channels
(C) Separating data into smaller units
(D) Reordering data packets

Answer: (A) Combining multiple data streams into one
Explanation: Upward multiplexing carries several transport connections over a single network connection, combining many streams into one.

Q17. Consider the statements given below and then choose the correct output from the given options:

N = '5'
try:
    print('WORD ' + N, end='#')
except:
    print('ERROR', end='#')
finally:
    print(' OVER')

(A) ERROR#
(B) WORD5#OVER
(C) WORD5#
(D) ERROR#OVER

Answer: (B) WORD5#OVER
Explanation: No exception occurs, so ‘WORD 5’ is printed with ‘#’, and the finally block then prints ‘ OVER’. The output is WORD 5# OVER, i.e. option B.

Q18. What is synonymy relation?

(A) A is part of B
(B) A denotes same as B
(C) A is a kind of B
(D) A is superordinate of B

Answer: (B) A denotes same as B
Explanation: Synonymy means two words denote the same thing (A denotes the same as B).

Q19. To capture data from the realworld IoT uses______

(A) Sensors
(B) Actuators
(C) Microprocesspr
(D) Microcontroller

Answer: (A) Sensors
Explanation: IoT devices use sensors to capture data from the real world; actuators act on it.

Q20. The “producer-consumer problem” is a classic synchronization problem that involves:

(A) Two processes competing for the same resources
(B) Two processes exchanging data through shared buffers
(C) Two processes competing for CPU time
(D) Two processes communicating over a network

Answer: (B) Two processes exchanging data through shared buffers
Explanation: In the producer-consumer problem, a producer and a consumer exchange data through a shared, bounded buffer.

Q21. In the context of recursion, what is the purpose of the “stack” data structure?

(A) To store variables and function calls for backtracking
(B) To store only variables
(C) To store only function calls
(D) To store loop counters

Answer: (A) To store variables and function calls for backtracking
Explanation: The call stack stores each call’s local variables and return address so execution can return (backtrack) correctly.

Q22. Which aggregate function in SQL displays the number of values in the specified column ignoring the NULL values ?

(A) len ( )
(B) count ( )
(C) number ( )
(D) num ( )

Answer: (B) count ( )
Explanation: COUNT(column) counts the non-NULL values in that column.

Q23. Which of the following is a top-down approach in which the entity’s higher level can be divided into two lower sub-entities?

(A) Aggregation
(B) Generalization
(C) Specialization
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C) Specialization
Explanation: Specialization is top-down: a higher-level entity is divided into lower-level sub-entities. Generalization is bottom-up.

Q24. Resource management in IoT can be done by implementing______

(A) Protocols
(B) Algorithms
(C) Networks
(D) Protocols and Algorithms

Answer: (D) Protocols and Algorithms
Explanation: IoT resource management is done with both suitable protocols and algorithms.

Q25. Which of the following is not a valid relational operator used with WHERE clause in SQL?

(A) >
(B) <=
(C) =>
(D) <>

Answer: (C) =>
Explanation: SQL’s relational operators are =, <, >, <=, >=, <> and !=; ‘=>’ is not valid.

Q26. Which of the following statement is false?

(A) A recursive language is also a regular language
(B) A context free language is also a regular language
(C) A context free language is also recursive enumerable language
(D) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (D) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Both are false: not every recursive language is regular, and not every context-free language is regular. (Every CFL is recursively enumerable, so C is true.)

Q27. Which tag is used to create a line break in an HTML document ?

(A) <lb>
(B) <break>
(C) <br>
(D) <newline>

Answer: (C) <br>
Explanation: The <br> tag inserts a line break.

Q28. In Huffman coding, which characters are usually assigned shorter codes?

(A) Characters with higher frequency
(B) Characters with lower frequency
(C) Characters with longer ASCII values
(D) Characters with shorter ASCII values

Answer: (A) Characters with higher frequency
Explanation: Huffman coding gives shorter codes to more frequent characters, which reduces the total encoded length.

Q29. What is a session in web development?

(A) A type of HTTP request
(B) A way to store data on the client side
(C) A temporary storage for user-specific data during a browsing session
(D) A method to encrypt data for secure transmission

Answer: (C) A temporary storage for user-specific data during a browsing session
Explanation: A session stores user-specific data on the server for the duration of a user’s visit.

Q30. Which of the following device provides the necessary translation of data received from network into a format or protocol recognized by devices with the internal network?

(A) Bridge
(B) Gateway
(C) Router
(D) Modem

Answer: (B) Gateway
Explanation: A gateway translates between different network protocols and formats.

Q31. Regular expression for all strings starts with b and ends with bba is.

(A) aba*b*bba
(B) ab(ab)*bba
(C) b(a+b)*bba
(D) All of the mentioned

Answer: (C) b(a+b)*bba
Explanation: b(a+b)*bba: starts with b, has any string in the middle, and ends with bba.

Q32. What does a first order predicate logic contain?

(A) Predicate and a subject
(B) Predicate and a Preposition
(C) Subject and an object
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Predicate and a subject
Explanation: A first-order predicate logic statement has a predicate applied to a subject (its terms or objects).

Q33. The hexadecimal number F4 is equivalent to which binary number?

(A) 11111001
(B) 11110100
(C) 11111100
(D) 11111010

Answer: (B) 11110100
Explanation: F = 1111 and 4 = 0100, so F4 = 11110100.

Q34. Algorithm analysis is primarily concerned with:

(A) Determining the best algorithm for a specific problem
(B) Measuring the time and space efficiency of an algorithm
(C) Creating new algorithms from scratch
(D) Solving algorithmic problems using any available approach

Answer: (B) Measuring the time and space efficiency of an algorithm
Explanation: Algorithm analysis measures an algorithm’s time and space efficiency.

Q35. A web server is _____________.

(A) A program that downloads files
(B) A type of web browser
(C) A protocol used for secure communication
(D) A computer that stores and delivers web pages

Answer: (D) A computer that stores and delivers web pages
Explanation: A web server is a computer (and its software) that stores web pages and delivers them to clients over HTTP.

Q36. If an algorithm’s behavior is bounded by “o(f(n)) if g(n)”, what notation does it become when the condition is removed?

(A) o(f(n))
(B) o(g(n))
(C) o(f(n) + g(n))
(D) o(f(n) * g(n))

Answer: (A) o(f(n))
Explanation: The question is poorly worded; dropping the condition leaves the bound as o(f(n)), so option A is the intended answer.

Q37. What is encapsulation in OOP?

(A) The ability to inherit properties from multiple classes
(B) The process of creating objects
(C) The bundling of data and methods that operate on the data
(D) The use of abstract classes only

Answer: (C) The bundling of data and methods that operate on the data
Explanation: Encapsulation bundles data and the methods that act on that data into one unit (a class).

Q38. Which of the following programming medium is used by MobileMe to create the appearance of desktop application inside a browser?

(A) HTML
(B) DHTML
(C) Jquery
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B) DHTML
Explanation: MobileMe used DHTML/AJAX-style techniques to make web apps look like desktop applications; among the options, DHTML is the intended answer.

Q39. Which SQL statement is used to update data in a database?

(A) ALTER
(B) CHANGE
(C) UPDATE
(D) MODIFY

Answer: (C) UPDATE
Explanation: The UPDATE statement modifies existing rows; ALTER changes the table structure.

Q40. Which term describes the way devices are interconnected in a network?

(A) Topology
(B) Bandwidth
(C) Encoding
(D) Transmission

Answer: (A) Topology
Explanation: Topology describes how devices in a network are arranged and connected.

Q41. Subnetting allows for:

(A) Faster data transmission
(B) Improved error control
(C) Efficient use of IP addresses
(D) Increased network security

Answer: (C) Efficient use of IP addresses
Explanation: Subnetting divides a network into smaller subnets so IP addresses are used efficiently.

Q42. This is a Assertion and Reason type questions. This question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason. Assertion (A) : FTP is a networking protocol used for transferring files.Reason (R) : FTP is used when we want to view some data from a website.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Explanation: FTP is a file-transfer protocol, so A is true; viewing website data is done with HTTP, so R is false.

Q43. Which one is a communication channel security protocol?

(A) SSL
(B) SET
(C) S-HTTP
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: SSL, SET and S-HTTP are all protocols for securing communication channels.

Q44. Church’s Thesis supports______

(A) Both TM is an general-purpose computer and TM is an algorithm and vice-versa are correct
(B) A Turing machine an algorithm and an algorithm as a Turing machine
(C) A Turing machine as a general-purpose computer system
(D) None of them is correct

Answer: (A) Both TM is an general-purpose computer and TM is an algorithm and vice-versa are correct
Explanation: Church’s (Church-Turing) thesis treats a Turing machine as an algorithm (and vice versa) and as a model of a general-purpose computer.

Q45. A priority encoder is used to:

(A) Convert binary information into a more compact form
(B) Assign priority to input lines based on their values
(C) Compare two binary numbers
(D) Combine multiple input signals into a single output

Answer: (B) Assign priority to input lines based on their values
Explanation: A priority encoder outputs the code of the highest-priority active input.

Q46. Which type of queue allows insertion and deletion of elements at both the front and rear ends?

(A) Circular queue
(B) Linear queue
(C) Dequeue (Double-ended queue)
(D) Priority queue

Answer: (C) Dequeue (Double-ended queue)
Explanation: A deque (double-ended queue) allows insertion and deletion at both ends.

Q47. Open System ________ tends to evolve more quickly than proprietary systems?

(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Hardware and Software
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Software
Explanation: Open-source software evolves faster than proprietary software because many developers contribute.

Q48. Can a DFA recognize a palindrome number?

(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Yes, with input alphabet as ∑*
(D) Can’t be determined

Answer: (B) No
Explanation: Palindromes are not a regular language (a DFA has finite memory), so a DFA cannot recognise them.

Q49. Which HTTP method is used for retrieving data from a server?

(A) GET
(B) POST
(C) PUT
(D) DELETE

Answer: (A) GET
Explanation: GET retrieves data from the server; POST and PUT send data, and DELETE removes it.

Q50. A large computer information system maintains many different computer files. Which amongst them is called a perpetual file?

(A) Specialized File
(B) Master File
(C) Log File
(D) Update File

Answer: (B) Master File
Explanation: A master file holds permanent (perpetual) data that is updated over time.

Q51. Which of the following could be a disadvantage of ‘open source’ software?

(A) High quality software with lots of features
(B) Not as customizable
(C) May not have been tested as much as proprietary software so might have bugs
(D) You can edit the source code to customize it

Answer: (C) May not have been tested as much as proprietary software so might have bugs
Explanation: Open-source software may not be as formally tested as some proprietary products, so it may contain bugs.

Q52. Uniform-cost search expands the node n with the __________

(A) Lowest path cost
(B) Heuristic cost
(C) Highest path cost
(D) Average path cost

Answer: (A) Lowest path cost
Explanation: Uniform-cost search always expands the node with the lowest path cost g(n).

Q53. The process of acquiring a semaphore and entering a critical section while ensuring mutual exclusion is often called:

(A) Wait-free synchronization
(B) Lock-free synchronization
(C) Critical section synchronization
(D) Barrier synchronization

Answer: (C) Critical section synchronization
Explanation: Acquiring a semaphore before entering a critical section to ensure mutual exclusion is critical-section synchronization.

Q54. The presense of _______ makes a card smart?

(A) Memory
(B) Money
(C) Microchip
(D) Message Queue Telemetry Transport

Answer: (C) Microchip
Explanation: A smart card is ‘smart’ because of its embedded microchip.

Q55. Which of the following is a database?

(A) MySQL
(B) Informix
(C) SQL Server
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: MySQL, Informix and SQL Server are all database management systems.

Q56. The ability to query data, as well as insert, delete, and alter tuples, is offered by ____________

(A) TCL (Transaction Control Language)
(B) DCL (Data Control Language)
(C) DDL (Data Definition Langauge)
(D) DML (Data Manipulation Langauge)

Answer: (D) DML (Data Manipulation Langauge)
Explanation: DML (SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE) is used to query and modify tuples.

Q57. Which of the following options is a network protocol that enables secure and encrypted file transfers between a client and a server ?

(A) SFTP
(B) Telnet
(C) SCP
(D) HTTP

Answer: (A) SFTP
Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) provides secure, encrypted file transfer. (SCP also runs over SSH, but SFTP is the standard answer.)

Q58. In a Binary Search Tree (BST), the operation of deleting a node with one child involves:

(A) Removing the node and replacing it with its left child
(B) Removing the node and replacing it with its right child
(C) Removing the node and replacing it with its parent
(D) Removing the node and leaving the subtree unaltered

Answer: (A) Removing the node and replacing it with its left child
Explanation: A node with one child is removed and replaced by that child. Option A gives the left-child case; the same applies to a right child.

Q59. A ____________(invented by Paul Roget in 1828) is a simple mechanical toy which creates the illusion of movement.

(A) Binocular
(B) Zoetrope
(C) Thaumatrope
(D) BOOM

Answer: (C) Thaumatrope
Explanation: The thaumatrope is a spinning disc toy that creates an illusion of motion; this question attributes it to Roget (1828).

Q60. Questions given below is Assertion (A) and Reason (R) based questions. Mark the correct choice as : Assertion (A) : We can retrieve records from more than one table in MYSQL. Reason (R) :Foreign key is used to establish a relationship between two tables.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but, Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but, Reason (R) is true .

Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
Explanation: Data can be fetched from several tables using joins, which rely on the primary key–foreign key relationship. Both are true and R explains A.

Q61. A regular language over an alphabet ∑ is closed under following operation(s)

(A) Union
(B) Concatenation
(C) Kleene*
(D) All of the mentioned

Answer: (D) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Regular languages are closed under union, concatenation and Kleene star.

Q62. What is the relationship between the distance between parity bits and their error detection and correction capability in Hamming Code?

(A) Closer parity bits provide higher error correction capability
(B) Closer parity bits provide lower error correction capability
(C) Distance between parity bits has no impact on error correction capability
(D) The position of parity bits is irrelevant in Hamming Code

Answer: (C) Distance between parity bits has no impact on error correction capability
Explanation: Hamming code’s correction ability depends on minimum Hamming distance (parity bits at powers-of-2 positions), not on the physical spacing of parity bits.

Q63. The I/O subsystem in an operating system is responsible for:

(A) Allocating memory for processes
(B) Managing the file system
(C) Managing input/output operations between processes and input/output devices
(D) Allocating CPU time to processes

Answer: (C) Managing input/output operations between processes and input/output devices
Explanation: The I/O subsystem manages communication between processes and I/O devices (buffering, caching, device drivers).

Q64. The default value for the type attribute of an Unordered List in HTML is :

(A) circle
(B) disc
(C) square
(D) triangle

Answer: (B) disc
Explanation: The default bullet for <ul> is disc.

Q65. Which of the following is not an e-Reservation portal in India ?

(A) https://www.amazon.in
(B) https://www.yatra.com
(C) https://www.makemytrip.com
(D) https://www.irctc.co.in

Answer: (A) https://www.amazon.in
Explanation: Amazon.in is a shopping site; Yatra, MakeMyTrip and IRCTC are reservation portals.

Q66. The Tower of Hanoi problem is a classic example of a problem that can be solved using recursion. How many minimum moves are required to solve the Tower of Hanoi problem with 3 disks?

(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 15
(D) 63

Answer: (B) 7
Explanation: Minimum moves = 2^n − 1 = 2^3 − 1 = 7.

Q67. Reverse engineering is primarily used for:

(A) Creating new software from scratch
(B) Improving software performance
(C) Understanding and documenting existing software
(D) Testing software components

Answer: (C) Understanding and documenting existing software
Explanation: Reverse engineering analyses existing software to understand and document its design.

Q68. Which among the following is not true about IoT?

(A) IoT uses Micro Controllers
(B) IoT is fully safe
(C) IoT uses Sensors and Actuators
(D) IoT uses wireless technology

Answer: (B) IoT is fully safe
Explanation: IoT is not fully safe; it has many security and privacy risks.

Q69. Identify the output of the following code segment:

S = "an apple. a toy."
S = s.find('a ', 2)
print(s)

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) a’

Answer: (C) 3
Explanation: The code has errors (‘S’ versus ‘s’, and find(‘a ‘, 2) actually returns 10). The intended reading, find(‘a’, 2), returns 3, so option C.

Q70. ______________ is an agreement between the communicating parties on how communication is to proceed over a network.

(A) Ethernet
(B) Protocol
(C) Operating System
(D) Antivirus

Answer: (B) Protocol
Explanation: A protocol is the agreed set of rules for communication over a network.

Q71. What is the main advantage of using exception handling in programming?

(A) It prevents code from running
(B) It improves code readability
(C) It handles unexpected errors and allows graceful program termination
(D) It eliminates the need for classes and objects

Answer: (C) It handles unexpected errors and allows graceful program termination
Explanation: Exception handling catches runtime errors and lets the program recover or end gracefully.

Q72. What is the term for creating a new class based on an existing class?

(A) Overriding
(B) Implementing
(C) Inheriting
(D) Overloading

Answer: (C) Inheriting
Explanation: Creating a new class from an existing one is inheritance.

Q73. In OOP, which term refers to a mechanism by which a class can inherit properties and behaviors from another class?

(A) Polymorphism
(B) Abstraction
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Inheritance

Answer: (D) Inheritance
Explanation: Inheritance lets a class acquire the properties and behaviour of another class.

Q74. The components expert system is/ are

(A) Knowledge Base
(B) Inference Engine
(C) User Interface
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: An expert system has a knowledge base, an inference engine and a user interface.

Q75. In an AVL tree, the balance factor of a node is the difference between the heights of its:

(A) Left and right subtrees
(B) Left subtree and parent
(C) Right subtree and parent
(D) Left and right children

Answer: (A) Left and right subtrees
Explanation: Balance factor = height of left subtree − height of right subtree.

Q76. A technique that was developed to determine whether a machine could or could not demonstrate the artificial intelligence known as the___?

(A) Algorithm
(B) Logaritham
(C) Turing Test
(D) Boolean algebra

Answer: (C) Turing Test
Explanation: The Turing Test (Alan Turing, 1950) checks whether a machine shows intelligent behaviour.

Q77. …………..compares neighbouring elements only and swaps them when necessary.

(A) Selection Sort
(B) Bubble Sort
(C) Insertion Sort
(D) Quick Sort

Answer: (B) Bubble Sort
Explanation: Bubble sort compares adjacent elements and swaps them if they are out of order.

Q78. Which of the following protocol defines that how the data is formatted and transmitted over the network ?

(A) HTTP
(B) SMTP
(C) FTP
(D) POP3

Answer: (A) HTTP
Explanation: HTTP defines how web messages are formatted and transmitted between client and server.

Q79. Public key encryption uses multiple keys. One key is used to encrypt data, while another is used to decrypt data. The key used to encrypt data is called the _____ key, while the key used to decrypt data is called the _____ key.

(A) Encryption, decryption
(B) Encryption, public
(C) Public, private
(D) Private, public

Answer: (C) Public, private
Explanation: In public-key encryption, data is encrypted with the public key and decrypted with the private key.

Q80. What is the primary purpose of an interface in OOP?

(A) To provide a blueprint for creating objects
(B) To define a set of methods that must be implemented by implementing classes
(C) To define constructors for classes
(D) To create static methods

Answer: (B) To define a set of methods that must be implemented by implementing classes
Explanation: An interface declares methods that every implementing class must define.

Q81. An index is clustered, if

(A) it is on a set of fields that form a candidate key.
(B) it is on a set of fields that include the primary key.
(C) the data records of the file are organized in the same order as the data entries of the index.
(D) the data records of the file are organized not in the same order as the data entries of the index.

Answer: (C) the data records of the file are organized in the same order as the data entries of the index.
Explanation: A clustered index stores the data records in the same order as the index entries.

Q82. In pointer implementation of linked lists, which operation can be performed in constant time (O(1)) when inserting or deleting nodes?

(A) Inserting at the beginning
(B) Inserting at the end
(C) Inserting at a specific position
(D) Deleting a specific node

Answer: (A) Inserting at the beginning
Explanation: Inserting at the head of a linked list just updates the head pointer, so it takes O(1) time.

Q83. Which of the following options is the correct protocol used for phone calls over the internet ?

(A) PPP
(B) FTP
(C) HTTP
(D) VoIP

Answer: (D) VoIP
Explanation: VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) carries phone calls over the internet.

Q84. What is the simplified expression for the Boolean function F(A, B, C, D) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14) using the K-map method?

(A) A’B’C’D’ + A’B’C’D + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABCD
(B) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABC’D + ABCD
(C) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D + ABC’D + ABCD
(D) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D’ + A’BCD + ABCD

Answer: (A) A’B’C’D’ + A’B’C’D + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABCD
Explanation: The minterms leave out 3, 7, 11 and 15, so the function simplifies to C′ + D′. None of the options is simplified; option A is the one usually given in answer keys.

Q85. What does the acronym “HTTP” stand for?

(A) HyperText Transmission Protocol
(B) HyperText Transfer Protocol
(C) High-Tech Text Protocol
(D) HyperTransfer Text Protocol

Answer: (B) HyperText Transfer Protocol
Explanation: HTTP = HyperText Transfer Protocol.

Q86. Which of the following is done by Secure Sockets Layers?

(A) creates a secure, private connection to a web server
(B) Encrypts information
(C) Sends information over the internet
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: SSL creates a secure connection to the server, encrypts data and sends it over the internet.

Q87. The default color of vlink is _________ .

(A) Green
(B) Purple
(C) Blue
(D) Yellow

Answer: (B) Purple
Explanation: By default, visited links (vlink) are shown in purple.

Q88. In binary subtraction using the simple method, if a borrow is needed from a digit and the borrowed digit is 1, what happens to the next digit’s value?

(A) It remains unchanged
(B) It is incremented by 1
(C) It is decremented by 1
(D) It becomes 0

Answer: (C) It is decremented by 1
Explanation: Borrowing from a digit reduces it by 1, so a 1 becomes 0.

Q89. Which programming language is often used for server-side web development?

(A) HTML
(B) CSS
(C) JavaScript
(D) PHP

Answer: (D) PHP
Explanation: PHP is a server-side scripting language; HTML and CSS are client-side.

Q90. What does Structured Analysis focus on?

(A) Hardware components
(B) Database management
(C) Data flow and processes
(D) User interfaces

Answer: (C) Data flow and processes
Explanation: Structured analysis models a system through data flow and processes, using DFDs.

Q91. Questions given below is of Assertion and Reason type question. This question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most suitable option considering the Assertion and Reason. Assertion (A) : When you enter a query into a search engine, it retrieves and presents a list of web pages, documents, images, videos, or other types of content that are relevant to your search. Reason (R) : The goal of information retrieval is to effectively and efficiently find and present information that matches the user’s search criteria.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation: A search engine returns relevant results because its goal is to find information matching the user’s query, so R explains A.

Q92. Given a Boolean function F(A, B, C) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 3, 5), what is the expression in SOP form?

(A) A’B’ + AB’ + AB + AC
(B) A + B + C
(C) AB’ + C’
(D) A’B’C’

Answer: (A) A’B’ + AB’ + AB + AC
Explanation: Σ(0,1,2,3,5) actually simplifies to A′ + B′C, which matches none of the options; A is the option given in most keys.

Q93. The primary goal of load control is to:

(A) Prevent processes from running concurrently
(B) Avoid context switching between processes
(C) Ensure that CPU time is evenly distributed among processes
(D) Maximize the usage of virtual memory

Answer: (C) Ensure that CPU time is evenly distributed among processes
Explanation: Load control limits how many processes are active (to avoid thrashing) so that CPU time is shared well; C is the closest option.

Q94. When adding two positive binary numbers using the 2’s complement method, if the result has a carry-out from the most significant bit (MSB), what should be done?

(A) Ignore the carry
(B) Add the carry to the least significant bit (LSB)
(C) Add the carry to the sign bit
(D) Subtract the carry from the MSB

Answer: (A) Ignore the carry
Explanation: In 2’s complement addition, a carry out of the MSB is discarded; overflow is checked separately.

Q95. What is the purpose of a destructor in OOP?

(A) To create instances of classes
(B) To handle exceptions
(C) To free up resources when an object is destroyed
(D) To define default values for properties

Answer: (C) To free up resources when an object is destroyed
Explanation: A destructor releases resources (memory, files) when an object is destroyed.

Q96. What is the main purpose of the Data Link Control in the data link layer?

(A) Error correction
(B) Data encryption
(C) Data routing
(D) Data framing

Answer: (D) Data framing
Explanation: Data link control handles framing, along with flow and error control, for reliable node-to-node delivery.

Q97. In the context of software project management, what is LOC an acronym for?

(A) Line of Change
(B) Level of Complexity
(C) Lines of Code
(D) List of Components

Answer: (C) Lines of Code
Explanation: LOC = Lines of Code, a basic software size metric.

Q98. Which concept allows a subclass to provide a specific implementation of a method that is already defined in the superclass?

(A) Overloading
(B) Inheritance
(C) Polymorphism
(D) Overriding

Answer: (D) Overriding
Explanation: Method overriding lets a subclass redefine a method already defined in its superclass.

Q99. If you need to transfer money to another person via the internet, which of the following methods could you use?

(A) Financial Cybermediary
(B) E Bill Presentation and payment
(C) E Check
(D) Any of the above

Answer: (D) Any of the above
Explanation: Cybermediaries, electronic bill presentment and payment, and e-cheques can all be used to transfer money online.

Q100. In Audio and Video Compression, each frame is divided into small grids, called picture elements or___________

(A) packets
(B) mega pixels
(C) frame
(D) pixels

Answer: (D) pixels
Explanation: The grid elements of an image or frame are picture elements, i.e. pixels.

Part II: Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)

Q101. Micro teaching is more effective

(A) always
(B) after the teaching-practice
(C) during the teaching-practice
(D) during the preparation for teaching-practice

Answer: (D) during the preparation for teaching-practice
Explanation: Micro-teaching is most useful while preparing for teaching practice, to master skills before facing a real class.

Q102. Pedagogy is a

(A) science of behavior
(B) science of learning
(C) science of teaching
(D) science of testing

Answer: (C) science of teaching
Explanation: Pedagogy is the science (and art) of teaching.

Q103. A blackboard cannot be used for __________.

(A) Improvement of a paragraph
(B) Making reports based on information
(C) Show schematic diagrams
(D) Summary of relationships between facts

Answer: (B) Making reports based on information
Explanation: A blackboard suits paragraphs, diagrams and summaries, but not preparing reports from collected information.

Q104. An ongoing dialogue between the teacher and the student during the learning process is a characteristic of:

(A) Formative assessment
(B) Summative assessment
(C) Diagnostic assessment
(D) Norm-referenced assessment

Answer: (A) Formative assessment
Explanation: Continuous teacher-student dialogue during learning is a feature of formative assessment.

Q105. How can a teacher enhance effective learning in her elementary classroom?

(A) By connecting the context to the lives of the students
(B) By drill and practice
(C) By encouraging competition
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) By connecting the context to the lives of the students
Explanation: Linking the content to children’s own lives makes learning meaningful and effective.

Q106. In order to keep himself alive and up to date, a teacher is required to dedicate himself to acquire knowledge at the frontiers of new knowledge. This is required

(A) to develop his I.Q.
(B) to develop his emotion
(C) to enhance his competence in teaching
(D) to enhance his knowledge

Answer: (C) to enhance his competence in teaching
Explanation: Keeping up with new knowledge improves a teacher’s teaching competence.

Q107. Learning is a natural activity of-

(A) Learners
(B) Teachers
(C) Individuals
(D) Living organism

Answer: (D) Living organism
Explanation: Learning is a natural activity of all living organisms.

Q108. Investigate and classify different objects is an example of

(A) Explore
(B) Elaborate
(C) Engage
(D) Explain

Answer: (A) Explore
Explanation: Investigating and classifying objects is a hands-on ‘Explore’ activity in the 5E model.

Q109. Teacher’s interest in teaching and the children can

(A) never help children in any way
(B) motivate the learners to learn
(C) help the learners to learn everything
(D) never encourage the learners

Answer: (B) motivate the learners to learn
Explanation: A teacher’s interest in teaching and in children motivates learners.

Q110. Which of the following uses the principle of specific to general?

(A) Analysis method
(B) Research/Discovery method
(C) Synthesis method
(D) Inductive method

Answer: (D) Inductive method
Explanation: The inductive method moves from specific examples to general rules.

Q111. Which of the following verbs is at greatest risk for misinterpretation:

(A) List
(B) Construct
(C) Understand
(D) Demonstrate

Answer: (C) Understand
Explanation: ‘Understand’ is not observable or measurable, so it is easily misinterpreted in objectives.

Q112. Which component of Lesson Plan is based on Flink’s Taxonomy ?

(A) Creating
(B) Understanding
(C) Analysing
(D) Caring

Answer: (D) Caring
Explanation: Fink’s Taxonomy of Significant Learning includes ‘Caring’, which Bloom’s taxonomy does not have.

Q113. Which of the following is the sequence of different levels of teaching?

(A) Memory level-Understanding level-Reflective level
(B) Understanding level-Memory level-Reflective level
(C) Reflective level-Understanding level-Memory Level
(D) Memory level-Reflective level-Understanding level

Answer: (A) Memory level-Understanding level-Reflective level
Explanation: The levels of teaching are memory, then understanding, then reflective (Herbart, Morrison, Hunt).

Q114. A _________ is a guideline that can help you organize what learning and how learning will take place in your lesson.

(A) Content
(B) Lesson plan.
(C) Map
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B) Lesson plan.
Explanation: A lesson plan organises what will be learned and how.

Q115. In problem solving method, a systematic and orderly process is adopted for carrying out

(A) the teaching-learning process
(B) data collection
(C) evaluation
(D) analysis

Answer: (A) the teaching-learning process
Explanation: The problem-solving method follows a systematic process for teaching and learning.

Q116. As a teacher when you see that children are fighting on the road, what will you do?

(A) Ignore the sitution and move away
(B) Tell the people to resolve the issue
(C) Pacify them by giving advice
(D) Tell them to run away

Answer: (C) Pacify them by giving advice
Explanation: A teacher should step in calmly and pacify the children with advice.

Q117. An assessment technique that allows students to demonstrate their knowledge through oral presentations or performances is called:

(A) Formative assessment
(B) Summative assessment
(C) Authentic assessment
(D) Individual assessment

Answer: (C) Authentic assessment
Explanation: Authentic assessment asks students to show knowledge through real tasks such as presentations and performances.

Q118. The essential factor to make the learning attractive is

(A) Reward
(B) Punishment
(C) Neither reward not pinishment
(D) Both reward and punishment

Answer: (A) Reward
Explanation: Reward (positive reinforcement) makes learning attractive.

Q119. Which is not true about lesson plan

(A) It develops confidence
(B) It helps in oderly delivery of contents
(C) It is developed by students
(D) It saves from haphazard teaching

Answer: (C) It is developed by students
Explanation: The teacher prepares the lesson plan, not the students.

Q120. Which of them is NOT a formal assessment?

(A) Interview
(B) Observation
(C) Project
(D) Quizzes

Answer: (B) Observation
Explanation: Observation is an informal assessment; interviews, projects and quizzes are formal.

Q121. Development of curriculum at higher level and its application at different levels is:

(A) Horizontal organization
(B) Vertical organization
(C) Centralized
(D) Decentralized

Answer: (C) Centralized
Explanation: Developing curriculum at the top and applying it at all levels is centralized curriculum development.

Q122. Professional ethics help teachers to understand their profession as a

(A) guide
(B) helper
(C) teacher
(D) director

Answer: (A) guide
Explanation: Professional ethics act as a guide for teachers’ conduct.

Q123. Sociological foundations are concerned with:

(A) History
(B) Economy
(C) Society
(D) Idea

Answer: (C) Society
Explanation: The sociological foundations of education deal with society.

Q124. Which is not the characteristic of authoritative administration

(A) Rudeness
(B) Suppression the subordinates
(C) Strict discipline
(D) Sharing

Answer: (D) Sharing
Explanation: Sharing is a democratic trait; authoritarian administration involves rudeness, suppression and strict discipline.

Q125. Learner-centered learning leads to____________

(A) holistic development
(B) Enhanced Activity
(C) loss of interest
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) holistic development
Explanation: Learner-centred learning leads to holistic development.

Q126. Two components of an educational objective are

(A) Cognitive and affective
(B) Expected behavior and learner’s outcome
(C) Performance and skills
(D) General and specific

Answer: (B) Expected behavior and learner’s outcome
Explanation: An educational objective states the expected behaviour (what the learner will do) and the learning outcome.

Q127. Teacher can utilize both assessment for learning and assessment of learning to______

(A) Know learning needs of child and select teaching strategy accordingly
(B) Assess child’s performance at periodic intervals and certify his/her performance
(C) Monitor children’s progress and set appropriate goals to fill their learning gaps
(D) Know children’s progress and achievement level

Answer: (C) Monitor children’s progress and set appropriate goals to fill their learning gaps
Explanation: Using assessment for and of learning together helps monitor progress and set goals to fill learning gaps.

Q128. _______ is the apex institution involved in the planned and coordinated development of the teacher education system in the country.

(A) UGC
(B) NCERT
(C) NCTE
(D) XSEED

Answer: (C) NCTE
Explanation: NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education) is the apex body for teacher education in India.

Q129. When classroom climate is positive, then learners know that they are valued __________.

(A) as individuals regardless of their appearance, personality or achievement
(B) only if they confirm to classroom norms
(C) only if they perform well in examinations
(D) only if they stay in their seats and speak only when asked.

Answer: (A) as individuals regardless of their appearance, personality or achievement
Explanation: In a positive classroom climate, learners feel valued as individuals, whatever their appearance, personality or achievement.

Q130. The use of poems and storytelling to explain concepts in an EVS class helps to…………..

(A) take care of the language and cultural diversity among learners
(B) channelise the energies of the students in the right direction
(C) make the lesson enjoyable and interesting
(D) promote the ability to imagine and explore the nature of the world at the local and global level

Answer: (C) make the lesson enjoyable and interesting
Explanation: Poems and stories make EVS lessons enjoyable and interesting.

Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)

Q131. Which statement is incorrect about the Tetris game?

(A) The game was created by Alexey Pajitnov in 1984
(B) The game consists of falling blocks, known as tetrominoes.
(C) The game is played on a 10×10 grid
(D) The objective is to clear lines by aligning blocks of the same color.

Answer: (C) The game is played on a 10×10 grid
Explanation: Tetris is played on a 10 × 20 grid, not 10 × 10. (Lines are cleared by filling a row, not by matching colours, so D is also inaccurate.)

Q132. A square pyramid has………

(A) Four faces
(B) Three faces
(C) Five faces
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Five faces
Explanation: A square pyramid has 5 faces: 1 square base and 4 triangles.

Q133. if A means +, B means-, Z means÷ and C means*, then 10C2A5B5=?

(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20

Answer: (D) 20
Explanation: 10 × 2 + 5 − 5 = 20.

Q134. If F,V and E are respectively the number of faces, vertices and edges of a triangular prism, then which of the following statements is true?

(A) 4F+2V-3E=6
(B) 2F+3V-2E = 10
(C) 2F+4V-3E=8
(D) 3F+2V-2E=11

Answer: (B) 2F+3V-2E = 10
Explanation: Triangular prism: F = 5, V = 6, E = 9, so 2(5) + 3(6) − 2(9) = 10.

Q135. Which group of organisms does not have claws?

(A) Mammals
(B) Reptiles
(C) Fishes
(D) Amphibians

Answer: (C) Fishes
Explanation: Fish have fins, not claws.

Q136. Choose the correct option instead of the question mark in the given question. DRAW : WARD :: TRAP : ?

(A) RATP
(B) PART
(C) USBQ
(D) ARTP

Answer: (B) PART
Explanation: DRAW reversed is WARD; TRAP reversed is PART.

Q137. Seema facing East walks 6 m. then turn right and walks 9 m. then she turn left and walked 6 m. How far is she from starting point ?

(A) 5 m.
(B) 10 m.
(C) 15 m.
(D) 20 m.

Answer: (C) 15 m.
Explanation: East 6 + 6 = 12 m and south 9 m: √(12² + 9²) = 15 m.

Q138. Vitamin A and K is rich in…………..

(A) Rice crop
(B) Poultry feed
(C) Parasites
(D) Manure

Answer: (B) Poultry feed
Explanation: Vitamins A and K are added to poultry feed (green fodder and supplements).

Q139. Which food group is mostly consumed by teenagers to get more calcium?

(A) Grains
(B) Meats and beans
(C) Dairy
(D) All of these

Answer: (C) Dairy
Explanation: Dairy products (milk, curd, cheese) are the main source of calcium.

Q140. Calculate the sum of lengths: 21 m 93 cm, 33 m 95 cm and 45 m 86 cm.

(A) 99 m 74 cm
(B) 98 m 74 cm
(C) 99 m 75 cm
(D) 101 m 74 cm

Answer: (D) 101 m 74 cm
Explanation: 21.93 + 33.95 + 45.86 = 101.74 m, i.e. 101 m 74 cm.

Q141. In a code language BHOPAL is written as OLOLOL, then what will be RANCHI written in that language?

(A) RIRIRI
(B) SBODIJ
(C) NININI
(D) THCNAR

Answer: (C) NININI
Explanation: The code repeats the 3rd and 6th letters: BHOPAL gives O, L → OLOLOL; RANCHI gives N, I → NININI.

Q142. A rectangular sandbox is 5 m wide and 2 m long. How many cubic metres of sand are needed to fill the box to a depth of 10 cm?

(A) 2.5
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 3

Answer: (B) 1
Explanation: Volume = 5 × 2 × 0.1 = 1 m³.

Q143. Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to a mathematics textbook?

(A) Examples in a mathematics textbook should be related to daily life of the students.
(B) A mathematics textbook should have solved examples only.
(C) A textbook of mathematics should not be very thick or heavy.
(D) A mathematics textbook should have varied exercises to give practice to students.

Answer: (B) A mathematics textbook should have solved examples only.
Explanation: A maths textbook needs varied exercises, not only solved examples.

Q144. Which one of the following is the language of the famous political treatise Amuktmalyada?

(A) Sanksrit
(B) Tamil
(C) Kannada
(D) Telugu

Answer: (D) Telugu
Explanation: Amuktamalyada was written in Telugu by Krishnadevaraya.

Q145. In which five year plan of independent India the focus was on the development of industrialization –

(A) Second
(B) Third
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

Answer: (A) Second
Explanation: The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61, Mahalanobis model) focused on heavy industrialization.

Q146. Which of the port is not a Natural Port?

(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Cochin
(D) Paradip

Answer: (A) Chennai
Explanation: Chennai is an artificial harbour; Mumbai and Kochi are natural harbours.

Q147. The Kyoto Protocol specifically relates to which one among the following issues?

(A) Emission reduction
(B) Ozone layer depletion
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons
(D) Biodiversity management

Answer: (A) Emission reduction
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol (1997) commits countries to reduce greenhouse-gas emissions.

Q148. Who was the founder of Mewar Praja Mandal ?

(A) Motilal Tejawat
(B) Vallabh Bahi Patel
(C) Manik Lal Verma
(D) Swami Govindanand

Answer: (C) Manik Lal Verma
Explanation: Manikya Lal Verma founded the Mewar Praja Mandal in 1938.

Q149. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) First Law Commssion recommended Indian Penal Code, 1860. (2) Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been completely replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Select the correct answer from the given options:

(A) 1 Only.
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The IPC was drafted by the First Law Commission (Macaulay), and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaced it from 1 July 2024.

Q150. In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. Nightwalker

(A) Talker
(B) Tailer
(C) Waller
(D) Winer

Answer: (C) Waller
Explanation: NIGHTWALKER has only one L, so WALLER cannot be formed.

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