Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 3 November 2025 (Shift 1) with Answers

Looking for the Bihar STET Computer Science question paper 2025? Here is the complete Paper II (Class 11-12) Computer Science paper of the exam held on 3 November 2025 (Shift 1), with the correct answer and a short explanation for every question. All 150 questions are given as text, so you can practise them online, revise topic by topic and get a feel for the real exam pattern.

Note: These answers were prepared and checked by the ExamYaari team. They are not the official BSEB answer key. If you think an answer is wrong, tell us in the comments.

हिंदी में पढ़ें: बिहार STET कंप्यूटर साइंस प्रश्न पत्र 3 नवंबर 2025 (शिफ्ट 1) हिंदी में

Table of Contents

• Exam Overview
• Topic-wise Analysis
• Part I: Computer Science (Q1–100)
• Part II: Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)
• Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)
• More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers
• FAQs

Bihar STET Computer Science 2025: Exam Overview

Exam	Bihar STET 2025 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)
Conducting Body	Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB)
Paper	Paper II (Class 11-12), Computer Science (Subject Code 226)
Exam Date	3 November 2025
Shift / Time	Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 11:30 AM)
Total Questions	150 MCQs
Part 1	Part I: Computer Science: Q1–100
Part 2	Part II: Teaching Aptitude: Q101–130
Part 3	Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning: Q131–150

Topic-wise Analysis of Computer Science Questions

Here is roughly how the 100 Computer Science questions in this paper are spread across the syllabus. Use it to decide which topics to revise first.

Topic	No. of Questions
Computer Networks & Internet	15
Digital Electronics & COA	14
Data Structures & Algorithms	12
Database & SQL	10
OOP Concepts	8
Python Programming	8
Operating System	8
Theory of Computation	8
Web Technology & HTML	5
Cyber Security & Ethics	4
E-commerce & IT Fundamentals	3
IoT & Emerging Tech	2
Artificial Intelligence	1
Software Engineering	1
Computer Fundamentals & History	1

Part I: Computer Science (Q1–100)

Q1. What is the main purpose of inheritance in OOP?

(A) To create instances of classes
(B) To prevent data abstraction
(C) To establish a parent-child relationship between classes
(D) To define exceptions

Answer: (C) To establish a parent-child relationship between classes
Explanation: Inheritance lets a child (derived) class reuse and extend the properties and methods of a parent (base) class.

Q2. Microcontrollers find application in various fields. What is a typical application of microcontrollers in the automotive industry?

(A) Operating systems for computers
(B) Entertainment systems in airplanes
(C) Engine control in cars
(D) Weather forecasting systems

Answer: (C) Engine control in cars
Explanation: Microcontrollers are embedded in Engine Control Units (ECUs) to manage fuel injection, ignition timing, etc.

Q3. The term “FAT” is stands for_____

(A) File Allocation Tree
(B) File Allocation Table
(C) File Allocation Graph
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B) File Allocation Table
Explanation: FAT = File Allocation Table, a file system used by DOS/Windows and USB drives.

Q4. What is CRUD an acronym for in database operations?

(A) Create, Read, Update, Delete
(B) Cache, Read, Update, Delete
(C) Copy, Replace, Update, Delete
(D) Collect, Read, Use, Discard

Answer: (A) Create, Read, Update, Delete
Explanation: CRUD = Create, Read, Update, Delete, the four basic operations on stored data.

Q5. Which principle ensures that only essential information is visible to the outside world?

(A) Polymorphism
(B) Information hiding
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Abstraction

Answer: (D) Abstraction
Explanation: Abstraction shows only the essential features of an object and hides the implementation details.

Q6. Contention-based MAC protocols are commonly used in:

(A) Ethernet networks
(B) Token Ring networks
(C) ATM networks
(D) Point-to-Point networks

Answer: (A) Ethernet networks
Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA/CD, a contention-based MAC protocol in which stations compete for the medium.

Q7. Stealing someone’s intellectual work and representing it as your own is known as ………….

(A) Fraud
(B) Identity Theft
(C) Online Stealing
(D) Plagiarism

Answer: (D) Plagiarism
Explanation: Presenting someone else’s work or ideas as your own is plagiarism.

Q8. Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be vulnerable to_____________attacks

(A) Scripting
(B) Cross attack
(C) Man-in-the-middle
(D) Radiant

Answer: (C) Man-in-the-middle
Explanation: An attacker sitting between the user and the server (Man-in-the-Middle) can still capture session data even when 2FA is enabled.

Q9. What is the term for the ability of a class to provide different implementations of a method based on the input parameters?

(A) Overloading
(B) Polymorphism
(C) Inheritance
(D) Encapsulation

Answer: (A) Overloading
Explanation: Method overloading gives the same method name different implementations depending on the parameters passed.

Q10. Which of the following refers to creating products tailored to individual customers?

(A) Customization
(B) Adaptation
(C) Direct material
(D) Auction

Answer: (A) Customization
Explanation: Customization means tailoring a product to the needs of an individual customer.

Q11. The length of an IPv6 address is:

(A) 32 bits
(B) 64 bits
(C) 128 bits
(D) 256 bits

Answer: (C) 128 bits
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long (an IPv4 address is 32 bits).

Q12. A website or online platform where individuals or groups regularly publish written content, typically in a reverse chronological order is known as :

(A) News Group
(B) Blog
(C) Chat Group
(D) Social Networking

Answer: (B) Blog
Explanation: A blog is a website where posts are published regularly and shown newest first.

Q13. A text file song.txt contains the following content: “Life goes on as it never ends”. What will be the output of the following code snippet?

f1 = open("song.txt", "r")
s1 = f1.read(5)
s2 = f1.readline(4)
s3 = f1.read(3)
print(s1, s3, sep="#")

(A) goes # on
(B) Life #goes # on
(C) Life # on
(D) Error

Answer: (C) Life # on
Explanation: read(5) returns ‘Life ‘, readline(4) returns ‘goes’, read(3) returns ‘ on’. print(s1, s3, sep=’#’) prints ‘Life # on’.

Q14. Who used the term “IoT” fist?

(A) Steve Jobs
(B) Bill Simpson
(C) Kevin Aston
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Kevin Aston
Explanation: Kevin Ashton coined the term ‘Internet of Things’ in 1999.

Q15. Which programming languages are commonly supported by Dreamweaver for web development?

(A) Python and Ruby
(B) HTML and CSS
(C) C++ and Java
(D) PHP and MySQL

Answer: (B) HTML and CSS
Explanation: Dreamweaver is mainly an HTML/CSS web-page editor (it also supports JavaScript, PHP and others).

Q16. What is the purpose of a constructor in OOP?

(A) To destroy objects
(B) To create instances of abstract classes
(C) To initialize object properties
(D) To define abstract methods

Answer: (C) To initialize object properties
Explanation: A constructor runs automatically when an object is created and initialises its data members.

Q17. What is the main advantage of using abstract classes over interfaces?

(A) Abstract classes can have multiple inheritance, unlike interfaces
(B) Interfaces can have constructors, while abstract classes cannot
(C) Abstract classes can provide default implementations of methods
(D) Interfaces allow for private access modifiers, unlike abstract classes

Answer: (C) Abstract classes can provide default implementations of methods
Explanation: Unlike a traditional interface, an abstract class can contain fully implemented (default) methods along with abstract ones.

Q18. Which of the following networking devices is used to regenerate and transmit the weakened signal ahead ?

(A) Hub
(B) Ethernet Card
(C) Repeater
(D) Modern

Answer: (C) Repeater
Explanation: A repeater regenerates a weakened signal and retransmits it, extending the range of the network.

Q19. The maximum length (in bytes) of an IPv4 datagram is:

(A) 32
(B) 256
(C) 1024
(D) 65535

Answer: (D) 65535
Explanation: The Total Length field of an IPv4 header is 16 bits, so the maximum datagram size is 2^16 − 1 = 65,535 bytes.

Q20. Ginni has created a table SCORES in MySQL to store runs scored by players in a cricket match. The table contains the following records: Ranveer – 50, Sukesh – 35, Mirza – 10, John – 51, Murugan – 70. Which of the following statements will give 10 as output?

(A) SELECT MAX (Score) FROM Scores;
(B) SELECT MIN (Score) FROM Scores;
(C) SELECT SUM (Score) FROM Scores;
(D) SELECT AVG (Score) FROM Scores;

Answer: (B) SELECT MIN (Score) FROM Scores;
Explanation: The smallest score in the table is 10 (Mirza), so MIN(Score) returns 10.

Q21. …………………..data type is used to implement Queue data structure in Python.

(A) Sets
(B) Dictionary
(C) Tuple
(D) List

Answer: (D) List
Explanation: A Python list can implement a queue using append() to enqueue and pop(0) to dequeue.

Q22. In an ideal microcomputer, where is the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) located?

(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Input devices
(D) Output devices

Answer: (A) CPU
Explanation: The ALU is a part of the CPU, along with the Control Unit and registers.

Q23. What consists of the identification of risks or threats, the implementation of security measures, and the monitoring of those measures for effectiveness?

(A) Risk assessment
(B) Security
(C) Risk Management
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Risk Management
Explanation: Risk Management covers identifying risks, applying controls and monitoring how well those controls work.

Q24. Which of the following attributes is not a valid attribute of the <body> tag in HTML?

(A) text
(B) background
(C) bgcolor
(D) width

Answer: (D) width
Explanation: text, background and bgcolor are attributes of the <body> tag; width is not.

Q25. SQL applies conditions on the groups through………clause after groups have been formed.

(A) where
(B) having
(C) new
(D) all

Answer: (B) having
Explanation: WHERE filters rows before grouping; HAVING applies conditions to groups after GROUP BY.

Q26. Given binary numbers A = 101010 and B = 111111, what is the result of (A AND B) OR (A XOR B)?

(A) 111111
(B) 101111
(C) 111010
(D) 101010

Answer: (A) 111111
Explanation: A AND B = 101010; A XOR B = 010101; 101010 OR 010101 = 111111.

Q27. A Language for which DFA exist is a________

(A) Regular Language
(B) Non-Regular Language
(C) Any language
(D) Cannot be said

Answer: (A) Regular Language
Explanation: A language is regular if and only if some DFA accepts it.

Q28. What is the difference between a website and a web page?

(A) A website is a collection of web pages, while a web page is a single document that is displayed on the web.
(B) A website is a software program, while a web page is a hardware device.
(C) A website is a physical object, while a web page is a logical object.
(D) All of the above.

Answer: (A) A website is a collection of web pages, while a web page is a single document that is displayed on the web.
Explanation: A website is a collection of related web pages; a web page is a single document.

Q29. The “Turing Machine” showed that you could use a/an _____ system to program any algorithmic task.

(A) binary
(B) electro-chemical
(C) recursive
(D) semantic

Answer: (A) binary
Explanation: Turing showed that a simple binary (0/1) symbol system on a tape can compute any algorithmic task.

Q30. What is the term for a condition that occurs during program execution that disrupts the normal flow of instructions?

(A) Abstraction
(B) Inheritance
(C) Exception
(D) Encapsulation

Answer: (C) Exception
Explanation: An exception is a runtime event that disrupts the normal flow of a program.

Q31. The term “Data” refers to:

(A) The electronic representation of the information(or data)
(B) Basic information
(C) Raw Facts and figures
(D) Both A and C

Answer: (C) Raw Facts and figures
Explanation: Data means raw, unprocessed facts and figures; processed data becomes information.

Q32. Which among the following was the first web browser ?

(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Mosaic
(C) Google Chrome
(D) Opera

Answer: (B) Mosaic
Explanation: Among the options, Mosaic (1993) came first and popularised the web. (The very first browser was WorldWideWeb by Tim Berners-Lee.)

Q33. Which among the following search algorithm requires least memory?

(A) Optimal Search
(B) Linear Search
(C) DFS
(D) BFS

Answer: (C) DFS
Explanation: DFS stores only the current path, so its memory requirement is O(bm), far less than BFS.

Q34. What is the primary role of the memory-mapped I/O technique in a microcontroller?

(A) It increases the speed of program execution
(B) It provides additional memory space for data storage
(C) It allows external devices to access the microcontroller’s memory
(D) It eliminates the need for I/O operations

Answer: (C) It allows external devices to access the microcontroller’s memory
Explanation: In memory-mapped I/O, devices share the memory address space, so the CPU accesses I/O registers using ordinary memory instructions.

Q35. Context switching in an operating system refers to the process of:

(A) Switching between user and kernel modes
(B) Switching between processes to allow multitasking
(C) Switching between different file systems
(D) Switching between different operating systems

Answer: (B) Switching between processes to allow multitasking
Explanation: Context switching saves the state of one process and loads another, which is what makes multitasking possible.

Q36. What is the typical operating voltage range for TTL logic family?

(A) 1.8 V to 3.3 V
(B) 3.3 V to 5.0 V
(C) 5.0 V to 12 V
(D) -5.0 V to 5.0 V

Answer: (B) 3.3 V to 5.0 V
Explanation: TTL works on a 5 V supply (4.75–5.25 V); among the options, 3.3–5.0 V is the closest.

Q37. Communication over mobile phone is an example of which type of communication mode?

(A) Simplex
(B) Half – Duplex
(C) Full – Duplex
(D) Double – Duplex

Answer: (C) Full – Duplex
Explanation: On a phone call both parties can talk and listen at the same time: full-duplex.

Q38. The advantage of using an expert system development tool is___________?

(A) imposed structure
(B) knowledge engineering assistance
(C) rapid prototyping
(D) all of the mentioned

Answer: (D) all of the mentioned
Explanation: Expert system shells offer imposed structure, knowledge-engineering help and rapid prototyping.

Q39. Consider the statements given below and then choose the correct output from the given options:

def Change(N):
    N = N + 10
    print(N, end='$$')

N = 15
Change(N)
print(N)

(A) 25$$15
(B) 15$$25
(C) 25$$25
(D) 2525$$

Answer: (A) 25$$15
Explanation: Integers are immutable: inside Change(), N becomes 25 and prints ’25$$’ with no newline; the outer N is still 15, so the output is 25$$15.

Q40. _________________ is two dimensional data structure in Python with row index and column index.

(A) DataFrame
(B) List
(C) Tuple
(D) Series

Answer: (A) DataFrame
Explanation: A Pandas DataFrame is two-dimensional, with a row index and a column index (a Series is 1-D).

Q41. What is the output of the following expression?

Sports = "Paralympic Games"
print(Sports.split("m"))

(A) [ ‘ Paraly ‘ , ‘m’ , ‘pic Ga’, ‘m’, ‘ es’]
(B) (‘Paraly’, ‘m’, ‘pic Games’)
(C) (‘Paraly’, ‘pic Ga’, ‘es’)
(D) [ ‘Paraly’, ‘pic Ga’, ‘es’]

Answer: (D) [ ‘Paraly’, ‘pic Ga’, ‘es’]
Explanation: ‘Paralympic Games’.split(‘m’) gives [‘Paraly’, ‘pic Ga’, ‘es’]. (The capital ‘S’ in Split is a printing error.)

Q42. A PDA chooses the next move based on

(A) Current state
(B) Next input symbol
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: A PDA decides its move from the current state, the input symbol and the top of the stack.

Q43. A photograph is an analog image and a ___ can convert it into a digital image.

(A) Printer
(B) Scanner
(C) Webcam
(D) Camera

Answer: (B) Scanner
Explanation: A scanner converts a physical photograph into a digital image.

Q44. A problem is said to be in NP if:

(A) Its solution can be verified in polynomial time
(B) It can be solved using a non-deterministic algorithm
(C) It is not solvable
(D) It has exponential complexity

Answer: (A) Its solution can be verified in polynomial time
Explanation: NP is the class of problems whose solutions can be verified in polynomial time.

Q45. The protocol that is used to send e-mails is _________.

(A) HTTP
(B) POP
(C) SMTP
(D) FTP

Answer: (C) SMTP
Explanation: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) sends email; POP/IMAP are used to receive it.

Q46. In OOP, what is method overloading?

(A) Creating multiple constructors
(B) Using multiple inheritance
(C) Defining multiple methods with the same name but different parameters
(D) Inheriting multiple methods from a parent class

Answer: (C) Defining multiple methods with the same name but different parameters
Explanation: Overloading means several methods with the same name but different parameter lists.

Q47. Private Key cryptography is also known as ______cryptography.

(A) Private key
(B) Symetric
(C) Asymetric
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Symetric
Explanation: Private-key cryptography uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt, so it is symmetric.

Q48. Which maintenance process model focuses on fixing defects as they are identified?

(A) Waterfall Model
(B) Corrective Maintenance
(C) Perfective Maintenance
(D) Adaptive Maintenance

Answer: (B) Corrective Maintenance
Explanation: Corrective maintenance fixes defects and bugs found after delivery.

Q49. Which of the following attributes is not a valid attribute of the <font> tag in HTML?

(A) face
(B) type
(C) size
(D) colour

Answer: (B) type
Explanation: The <font> tag supports face, size and color; ‘type’ is not one of its attributes.

Q50. Which of the following is the first and foremost step in Image Processing?

(A) Image acquisition
(B) Segmentation
(C) Image enhancement
(D) Image restoration

Answer: (A) Image acquisition
Explanation: Image acquisition (capturing the image) is the first step in image processing.

Q51. What is the expanded form of TCP in TCP/IP ?

(A) Transmission Control Protocol
(B) Transmission Central Protocol
(C) Transfer Control Protocol
(D) Transport Central Protocol

Answer: (A) Transmission Control Protocol
Explanation: TCP = Transmission Control Protocol.

Q52. The kernel operates in a privileged mode, also known as:

(A) User mode
(B) Debug mode
(C) Supervisor mode
(D) Interrupt mode

Answer: (C) Supervisor mode
Explanation: The kernel runs in supervisor (kernel / privileged) mode.

Q53. The “inode” in a Unix-like file system is used to:

(A) Store the contents of the file
(B) Store the file’s name and location
(C) Store the attributes and metadata of the file
(D) Store the directory structure of the file system

Answer: (C) Store the attributes and metadata of the file
Explanation: An inode stores a file’s metadata (size, owner, permissions, block pointers) but not its name.

Q54. The term HTTP stand for:

(A) Hyper Terminal Tracing Program
(B) Hypertext Tracing Program
(C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(D) Hypertext Tracing Protocol

Answer: (C) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
Explanation: HTTP = HyperText Transfer Protocol.

Q55. The range of numbers that can be represented in an n-bit 1’s complement system is from:

(A) -2^(n-1) to 2^(n-1) – 1
(B) 0 to 2^n – 1
(C) -2^(n-1) to 2^(n-1)
(D) -2^n to 2^n – 1

Answer: (A) -2^(n-1) to 2^(n-1) – 1
Explanation: Strictly, n-bit 1’s complement covers −(2^(n−1) − 1) to +(2^(n−1) − 1). Option A is the 2’s-complement range and is the closest option given.

Q56. Which of the following are advantages normally associated with B2B e‐commerce?

(A) Wide Reach
(B) Shorter Cycle Time
(C) Reduced Cost
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: B2B e-commerce offers wider reach, shorter cycle times and lower costs.

Q57. ____________ offers the ability to query the data and insert, alter, and delete tuples.

(A) Transaction Control Language (TCL)
(B) Data Control Language (DCL)
(C) Data Definition Language (DDL)
(D) Data Manipulation Language (DML)

Answer: (D) Data Manipulation Language (DML)
Explanation: DML (SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE) is used to query and modify tuples.

Q58. Program Analysis Tools are used for:

(A) Designing software architecture
(B) Measuring software reliability
(C) Automatically generating test cases
(D) Analysing code for errors and performance bottlenecks

Answer: (D) Analysing code for errors and performance bottlenecks
Explanation: Program analysis tools (static and dynamic) check code for errors and performance bottlenecks.

Q59. In OOP, what does the term “method signature” refer to?

(A) The name of the method
(B) The return type of the method
(C) The parameters of the method
(D) The combination of method name and parameter types

Answer: (D) The combination of method name and parameter types
Explanation: A method signature is the method name plus its parameter types.

Q60. Which testing approach involves testing individual components or units of code?

(A) Integration Testing
(B) System Testing
(C) Unit Testing
(D) Acceptance Testing

Answer: (C) Unit Testing
Explanation: Unit testing tests individual modules or functions in isolation.

Q61. For a 2-D array represented in row-major order, the index formula to access the element at row “i” and column “j” using the base address “B” is:

(A) Index = B + (i * n + j)
(B) Index = B + (j * n + i)
(C) Index = B + (i + j)
(D) Index = B + (i * m + j)

Answer: (A) Index = B + (i * n + j)
Explanation: In row-major order with n columns, the address is B + (i × n + j) × element size.

Q62. Which of the following is not a limitation of file system?

(A) Data Redundancy
(B) Data Inconsistency
(C) Data dependence
(D) Storing Space

Answer: (D) Storing Space
Explanation: File systems suffer from redundancy, inconsistency and data dependence; storage space is not a typical limitation.

Q63. What is the purpose of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?

(A) To assign IP addresses to devices
(B) To resolve domain names to IP addresses
(C) To map MAC addresses to IP addresses
(D) To manage network congestion

Answer: (C) To map MAC addresses to IP addresses
Explanation: ARP maps a known IP address to its MAC (hardware) address; option C states this pairing.

Q64. Which of the following is not a Web Service ?

(A) Using Diksha learning portal
(B) Sending and receiving email
(C) File transfer over Bluetooth
(D) Using a banking portal for online transaction

Answer: (C) File transfer over Bluetooth
Explanation: A Bluetooth file transfer is a direct device-to-device link, not a web service.

Q65. What is a NoSQL database?

(A) A NoSQL database is a database that does not use the relational model.
(B) A No SQL database is a database that is not managed by a DBMS.
(C) A No SQL database is a database that is not stored on a physical device.
(D) All of the above.

Answer: (A) A NoSQL database is a database that does not use the relational model.
Explanation: A NoSQL database does not use the relational (table) model; it may be document, key-value, graph or column based.

Q66. Where will the Hill Climbing Algorithm terminate?

(A) Stopping Criterion met
(B) Global Min/Max is achieved
(C) No neighbor has higher value
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C) No neighbor has higher value
Explanation: Hill climbing stops when no neighbouring state has a better value, which may be only a local optimum.

Q67. Which of the following operator evaluates to True if the variable on either side of the operator points towards the same memory location and False otherwise ?

(A) is
(B) is not
(C) and
(D) or

Answer: (A) is
Explanation: The ‘is’ operator checks identity, i.e. whether both names refer to the same object in memory.

Q68. In 3G and 4G mobile technologies, the character ‘G’ stands for :

(A) Generation
(B) GPRS
(C) Grid
(D) Google

Answer: (A) Generation
Explanation: G stands for Generation.

Q69. What is MISO pin in the RFID Module?

(A) Master In Slave Out
(B) Manage Internal Slave Output
(C) Master Internal Search Optimization
(D) Manage Input Slave Op

Answer: (A) Master In Slave Out
Explanation: MISO = Master In Slave Out, an SPI data line.

Q70. Halting state of Turing machine are:

(A) Start and stop
(B) Accept and reject
(C) Start and reject
(D) Reject and allow

Answer: (B) Accept and reject
Explanation: A Turing machine halts in either an accept state or a reject state.

Q71. _________ are used to overcome the challenges of managing the resources of the IoT.

(A) Clustering
(B) Software agents
(C) Synchronization techniques
(D) Cluster, Software agent, and Synchronization techniques

Answer: (D) Cluster, Software agent, and Synchronization techniques
Explanation: Clustering, software agents and synchronization techniques are all used to manage IoT resources.

Q72. What is the POS form of the Boolean expression F(A, B, C) = Π(1, 2, 4, 6)?

(A) (A + B + C ‘) (A + B’ + C)(A ‘+ B + C)
(B) (A’ + B + C) (A ‘+ B + C)
(C) (A’ + B + C ‘) (A + B + C’) (A ‘+ B + C)
(D) (A + B’ + C) (A + B ‘+ C) (A’ + B + C)

Answer: (A) (A + B + C ‘) (A + B’ + C)(A ‘+ B + C)
Explanation: Maxterm 1 = (A+B+C′), 2 = (A+B′+C), 4 = (A′+B+C). Option A lists these; the full product also needs maxterm 6 = (A′+B′+C).

Q73. ____________attribute is used to specify the location of an image file.

(A) alt
(B) src
(C) align
(D) name

Answer: (B) src
Explanation: The src attribute of <img> gives the path or URL of the image.

Q74. If NFA of 5 states excluding the initial state is converted into DFA, maximum possible number of states for the DFA is?

(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 128
(D) 187

Answer: (A) 64
Explanation: With 5 + 1 = 6 NFA states, the equivalent DFA can have at most 2^6 = 64 states.

Q75. What is the purpose of staffing level estimation in software project management?

(A) To determine the number of hardware components required
(B) To identify potential risks in the project
(C) To allocate appropriate resources to the project
(D) To estimate the maintenance costs of the software

Answer: (C) To allocate appropriate resources to the project
Explanation: Staffing estimation decides how many people with which skills the project needs at each phase.

Q76. What is DBMS?

(A) DBMS is a collection of queries
(B) ) DBMS is a high-level language
(C) DBMS is a programming language
(D) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data

Answer: (D) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
Explanation: A DBMS is software that stores, modifies and retrieves data.

Q77. Which of the following is the correct identifier ?

(A) global
(B) Break
(C) def
(D) with

Answer: (B) Break
Explanation: Python is case-sensitive: ‘break’ is a keyword but ‘Break’ is a valid identifier. global, def and with are keywords.

Q78. What is the time complexity of the Divide and Conquer algorithm for finding the maximum and minimum elements in an array of size “n”?

(A) O(n)
(B) O(log n)
(C) O(n log n)
(D) O(n^2)

Answer: (A) O(n)
Explanation: Divide-and-conquer MaxMin makes about 3n/2 − 2 comparisons, i.e. O(n).

Q79. Which of the following protocol is used for secure remote login ?

(A) FTP
(B) HTTPS
(C) TELNET
(D) HTTP

Answer: (B) HTTPS
Explanation: Of the options, only HTTPS is encrypted. (SSH is the standard protocol for secure remote login; TELNET is insecure.)

Q80. Which property of dynamic programming is particularly useful for solving Optimal Binary Search Tree problems?

(A) Optimal substructure
(B) Greedy choice property
(C) Divide and Conquer
(D) Linear programming

Answer: (A) Optimal substructure
Explanation: Optimal BST uses optimal substructure: each subtree of an optimal BST is itself optimal.

Q81. Which among the following are the limiting factors of IoT?

(A) Low power
(B) Low processing power
(C) Low memory
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: IoT devices usually have low power, low processing power and low memory.

Q82. In the context of dynamic programming for solving multistage graph problems, what is memoization used for?

(A) Dividing the graph into stages
(B) Sorting the vertices in the graph
(C) Storing solutions to overlapping subproblems
(D) Finding the shortest path

Answer: (C) Storing solutions to overlapping subproblems
Explanation: Memoization stores the results of overlapping subproblems so they are not recomputed.

Q83. How is the width of the data bus typically measured in a microcomputer system?

(A) In kilobytes (KB)
(B) In megahertz (MHz)
(C) In bits
(D) In address lines

Answer: (C) In bits
Explanation: Data-bus width is measured in bits (8, 16, 32, 64-bit).

Q84. The default value of the transaction identifier in a Modbus TCP packet is?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

Answer: (A) 0
Explanation: The transaction identifier is set by the client; it usually starts at 0 and is echoed back by the server.

Q85. In the Divide and Conquer algorithm for finding the maximum and minimum elements, how are the results from the left and right subarrays combined?

(A) By taking the average of the maximum and minimum values
(B) By comparing the maximum of the left and right subarrays and the minimum of the left and right subarrays
(C) By adding the maximum of the left subarray to the minimum of the right subarray
(D) By multiplying the maximum of the left subarray with the minimum of the right subarray

Answer: (B) By comparing the maximum of the left and right subarrays and the minimum of the left and right subarrays
Explanation: Overall max = max(leftMax, rightMax) and overall min = min(leftMin, rightMin).

Q86. The class of CFG is not closed under______

(A) Concatenation
(B) Intersection
(C) Union
(D) Repeated Concatenation.

Answer: (B) Intersection
Explanation: Context-free languages are closed under union, concatenation and Kleene star, but not under intersection or complement.

Q87. Which of the following is NOT a network topology?

(A) Star
(B) Ring
(C) Disk
(D) Mesh

Answer: (C) Disk
Explanation: Star, ring and mesh are topologies; ‘disk’ is not.

Q88. Which implementation of a stack requires a fixed amount of memory allocated for a fixed number of elements?

(A) Array implementation
(B) Linked implementation
(C) Dynamic implementation
(D) Static implementation

Answer: (A) Array implementation
Explanation: An array-based stack needs a fixed-size block of memory allocated in advance.

Q89. The data structure used to represent the allocation status of main memory is known as:

(A) Page table
(B) File allocation table
(C) Memory map
(D) Memory management unit

Answer: (C) Memory map
Explanation: A memory map (bitmap or list) records which parts of main memory are allocated and which are free.

Q90. What does the DOM represent in web development?

(A) Database of Objects and Models
(B) Document Oriented Middleware
(C) Data Object Model
(D) Document Object Model

Answer: (D) Document Object Model
Explanation: DOM = Document Object Model, a tree representation of an HTML/XML document.

Q91. The complement of a language will only be defined when and only when the __________ over the language is defined.

(A) Alphabet
(B) Word
(C) String
(D) Grammar

Answer: (A) Alphabet
Explanation: The complement of L is Σ* − L, so it is defined only when the alphabet Σ is defined.

Q92. Which addressing mode involves specifying a value within the instruction itself, rather than referencing a memory location?

(A) Direct addressing
(B) Immediate addressing
(C) Indirect addressing
(D) Indexed addressing

Answer: (B) Immediate addressing
Explanation: In immediate addressing the operand value is part of the instruction itself (e.g. MVI A, 05H).

Q93. In Excess-3 Code, why is the code considered self-complementing?

(A) Because it can be converted to ASCII directly
(B) Because the 9’s complement of each digit can be obtained by inverting its bits
(C) Because it is used for financial calculations
(D) Because it is a form of Gray code

Answer: (B) Because the 9’s complement of each digit can be obtained by inverting its bits
Explanation: In Excess-3 code, inverting the bits of a digit gives the code of its 9’s complement.

Q94. Which attribute of the <body> tag is used to set the background color of a web page?

(A) text
(B) bgcolor
(C) background
(D) color

Answer: (B) bgcolor
Explanation: <body bgcolor=”…”> sets the page background colour.

Q95. The Internet of Things (IoT), access to real-time data, and the introduction of cyber- physical systems mark the big changes for this era.

(A) Industrial Revolution
(B) 3rd Industrial Revolution
(C) Industry 4.0
(D) Manufacturing automation

Answer: (C) Industry 4.0
Explanation: IoT, real-time data and cyber-physical systems define Industry 4.0.

Q96. Which of the following provides the ability to query information from the database and insert tuples into, delete tuples from, and modify tuples in the database?

(A) DML (Data Manipulation Language)
(B) DDL (Data Definition Language)
(C) Query
(D) Relational Schema

Answer: (A) DML (Data Manipulation Language)
Explanation: DML is used to query, insert, delete and modify tuples.

Q97. Which ZigBee device is used to transfer data between ZigBee devices?

(A) Zigbee Coordinator device
(B) Zigbee Router
(C) Zigbee start devce
(D) Zigbee end devce

Answer: (B) Zigbee Router
Explanation: A ZigBee router relays (routes) data between ZigBee devices.

Q98. Which of the following is the base case for a recursive factorial function?

(A) n == 0
(B) n == 1
(C) n < 0
(D) n > 0

Answer: (A) n == 0
Explanation: n == 0 (0! = 1) is the standard base case; n == 1 also works when n ≥ 1.

Q99. File manipulation operations in an operating system include:

(A) Allocating memory to files
(B) Assigning file names to processes
(C) Loading files into CPU registers
(D) Reading, writing, and modifying file content

Answer: (D) Reading, writing, and modifying file content
Explanation: File manipulation means reading, writing and modifying file content.

Q100. What does I stands for in CIA

(A) Indian
(B) Individual
(C) Income
(D) Integrity

Answer: (D) Integrity
Explanation: CIA triad = Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability.

Part II: Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)

Q101. The category of Audio -Visual Aids is:

(A) Tape-recorder
(B) Television
(C) Radio
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: A tape recorder and radio are audio aids, a television is audio-visual; together they make up the category of audio-visual aids.

Q102. The process of selecting units from a population to estimate characteristics of the population is called

(A) analyzing
(B) inference
(C) research
(D) sampling

Answer: (D) sampling
Explanation: Sampling is selecting units from a population to estimate the population’s characteristics.

Q103. The importance of curriculum in the system of education is just like a:

(A) Preparation of students for service
(B) Constitution in a country
(C) Provision of latest knowledge
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Constitution in a country
Explanation: The curriculum guides the whole education system the way a constitution guides a country.

Q104. Project-based activities is an example of

(A) Explore
(B) Engage
(C) Explain
(D) Elaborate

Answer: (D) Elaborate
Explanation: In the 5E model, project-based activities belong to the Elaborate stage, where students apply what they have learned.

Q105. Rousseau has given the concept of Follow Nature. The meaning of this maxim is

(A) to give full freedom to the teacher
(B) to regulate the education of a pupil according to his nature
(C) the teacher should follow his discretion
(D) knowledge should be given according to the teacher’s nature

Answer: (B) to regulate the education of a pupil according to his nature
Explanation: ‘Follow Nature’ means education should follow the child’s natural interests and development.

Q106. Who said “The assignment method is an important step in teaching and learning process”?

(A) Douglas
(B) Dewey
(C) Piaget
(D) S Morris

Answer: (A) Douglas
Explanation: This statement on the assignment method is usually attributed to Douglas.

Q107. Freedom in education means

(A) the spirit of opposing the rules of the school regularly
(B) the students will do anything they want
(C) one’s own growth freely and the recognition of others freedom to grow similarly
(D) teachers are free to teach as they think

Answer: (C) one’s own growth freely and the recognition of others freedom to grow similarly
Explanation: Freedom in education means growing freely while respecting others’ freedom to grow.

Q108. Full form of EATS model is

(A) Essential questions, activity prior knowledge, teaching, summarizing & assessment
(B) Elements questions, activity prior knowledge, teaching and summarizing
(C) Experiential questions, activity prior knowledge, teaching, summarizing & assessment
(D) Essential questions, activity prior knowledge, teaching and summarizing

Answer: (A) Essential questions, activity prior knowledge, teaching, summarizing & assessment
Explanation: EATS = Essential questions, Activating prior knowledge, Teaching, Summarizing & assessment.

Q109. Drama or role play is most useful for teaching……….

(A) History
(B) Science
(C) Maths
(D) Language

Answer: (D) Language
Explanation: Drama and role play are especially useful for language teaching (speaking, expression, vocabulary).

Q110. A teaching procedure involved in the clarification or explanation to the student of some major idea is called

(A) demonstration method
(B) lecture method
(C) story telling method
(D) problem solving method

Answer: (B) lecture method
Explanation: Explaining or clarifying a major idea to students is the core of the lecture (explanation) method.

Q111. Which one of the following statements about progressive education explains-Education is life itself?

(A) School education should continue as long as possible.
(B) Schools are not required, children can learn from their life experiences.
(C) Education in schools should reflect the social and natural world.
(D) Life is the true educator.

Answer: (C) Education in schools should reflect the social and natural world.
Explanation: Dewey’s ‘Education is life itself’ means school should reflect real social and natural life.

Q112. The practice of finding commonalities or fundamental connections across a range of particular circumstances is known as ______

(A) Abstraction
(B) Generalization
(C) Problem Solving
(D) Reasoning

Answer: (B) Generalization
Explanation: Finding common connections across many specific situations is generalization.

Q113. Primary teacher should try to or concentrate in:

(A) Raising intellectual standard of the students
(B) Improving physical standard of students
(C) Help all round development of students
(D) Inculcating value in students.

Answer: (C) Help all round development of students
Explanation: At the primary stage the teacher should aim at the all-round development of the child.

Q114. Students in primary classes have a lot of alternate conceptions in many topics like living, non-living, water cycle, plants etc. The sources of these alternate conceptions can be I. family and community. II. textbooks and other books. III. Leathers IV. stories and poems. Select the correct option given below

(A) I, II and IV
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) Only I
(D) I and II

Answer: (B) I, II, III and IV
Explanation: Family/community, books, teachers and stories/poems can all be sources of alternative conceptions.

Q115. Effective teaching includes-

(A) Teacher is active but students may or may not be active.
(B) Teacher may be active or inactive but students are active.
(C) Teacher is active and students are active.
(D) All the above

Answer: (C) Teacher is active and students are active.
Explanation: Effective teaching needs both the teacher and the students to be active.

Q116. Creativity is thought to be related to the concept of-

(A) fluid intelligence
(B) crystallized intelligence
(C) convergent thinking
(D) divergent thinking

Answer: (D) divergent thinking
Explanation: Creativity is linked with divergent thinking, i.e. producing many different solutions.

Q117. Which one of the following is not a limitation of the preoperational thought?

(A) Tendency to concentrate
(B) Development of the symbolic thought
(C) Egocentrism
(D) Irreversibility

Answer: (B) Development of the symbolic thought
Explanation: Symbolic thought is an achievement of the preoperational stage; centration, egocentrism and irreversibility are its limitations.

Q118. Which of the following best describes a symposium?

(A) A meeting of delegates from a fraternal organization
(B) A public meeting where a short course of study is addressed by a single expert
(C) A meeting where a small group of experts presents different aspects of a problem or topic to an audience
(D) A debate between two opposing teams

Answer: (C) A meeting where a small group of experts presents different aspects of a problem or topic to an audience
Explanation: In a symposium, a small group of experts each present a different aspect of a topic to an audience.

Q119. A child performing well in the class, must be

(A) praised
(B) given reward
(C) recognised
(D) all of these

Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: A good performer should be praised, rewarded and recognised to keep them motivated.

Q120. First, the students will make a prediction of what will happen in the story. Then the students must make a list of the main events in the story. Lastly, I will write a review of the story. What skills are being used?

(A) Application, Synthesis, and Evaluation
(B) Comprehension, Knowledge, and Analysis
(C) Comprehension, Knowledge, and Evaluation
(D) Evaluation, Knowledge, and Synthesis

Answer: (C) Comprehension, Knowledge, and Evaluation
Explanation: Predicting = comprehension, listing main events = knowledge, writing a review = evaluation (Bloom’s taxonomy).

Q121. You want to adopt the teaching profession because

(A) there are many others in your family who are teachers
(B) there is no other option to earn a livelihood
(C) children give more respect and reverence
(D) you get an oppurtinity to handle/ train the future citizens of the nation

Answer: (D) you get an oppurtinity to handle/ train the future citizens of the nation
Explanation: The right motive for teaching is the chance to shape the future citizens of the nation.

Q122. Areas/sources of information for psychological foundation are:

(A) Learning process
(B) Teaching method
(C) Student characteristics
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: The psychological foundation draws on the learning process, teaching methods and student characteristics.

Q123. Which of the following is the objective of a teacher?

(A) To gain possible maximum fame
(B) To extend the welfare of students to the possible maximum limit
(C) To teach the possible maximum number of students
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) To extend the welfare of students to the possible maximum limit
Explanation: A teacher’s objective is the welfare of students to the maximum possible extent.

Q124. Which statement is not true about planning of teaching?

(A) Teacher should know about content
(B) Teacher become aggressive in class
(C) Plans ways of providing regular meaningful feedback to students.
(D) Decide upon/order textbooks(s), copies of articles, etc. which will be required.

Answer: (B) Teacher become aggressive in class
Explanation: Being aggressive in class is not part of planning teaching; the other options are.

Q125. The purpose of integrated curriculum is:

(A) Increase in no. of books
(B) Decrease in no. of books
(C) Increases in students enrolment
(D) Decrease in dropout

Answer: (B) Decrease in no. of books
Explanation: An integrated curriculum combines subjects, which reduces the number of separate books and the load.

Q126. You have a mixed class of boys and girls. Which method would you adopt to improve co-operation between them?

(A) Asking parents to discuss equality
(B) Making boys and girls share a bench
(C) Setting tasks which have to be done together
(D) Talking about equality in lessons

Answer: (C) Setting tasks which have to be done together
Explanation: Giving tasks that boys and girls must do together builds cooperation through shared work.

Q127. The method for the acquisition of teaching skill is

(A) Inquiry learning
(B) Team teaching
(C) Discovery learning
(D) Micro teaching

Answer: (D) Micro teaching
Explanation: Micro-teaching is a training technique for learning specific teaching skills.

Q128. Is micro teaching real teaching?

(A) Yes
(B) no
(C) Both yes and no from different perspectives
(D) Can’t say anything.

Answer: (A) Yes
Explanation: Micro-teaching is real teaching on a smaller scale (fewer students, shorter time, one skill at a time).

Q129. Basic education should be

(A) student oriented
(B) activity oriented
(C) project oriented
(D) all of these

Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: Basic education (Nai Talim) is student-centred, activity-based and project-based.

Q130. Story telling enables the teacher to make lessons

(A) boring
(B) complicated
(C) a burden for students
(D) lively and interesting to the pupils

Answer: (D) lively and interesting to the pupils
Explanation: Stories make lessons lively and interesting for pupils.

Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)

Q131. In any code GROUND is written as HQPTOC then what will be TIRED written in that code?

(A) UHSDE
(B) VHSDE
(C) UHSDC
(D) UHQFC

Answer: (A) UHSDE
Explanation: Pattern +1, −1, +1, −1, +1, −1: T→U, I→H, R→S, E→D, D→E, giving UHSDE.

Q132. What is the term for a market condition where supply exceeds demand?

(A) Shortage
(B) Surplus
(C) Equilibrium
(D) Deficit

Answer: (B) Surplus
Explanation: When supply exceeds demand, the result is a surplus.

Q133. Khudai Khidmatgars were popularly known as the ___________

(A) Green Shirts
(B) Red Shirts
(C) Black Shirts
(D) White Shirts

Answer: (B) Red Shirts
Explanation: The Khudai Khidmatgars of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan were called the Red Shirts (Surkh Posh).

Q134. To kill fungus on crops we generally used………….

(A) Insecticides
(B) Pesticides
(C) Fungicides
(D) All of these

Answer: (C) Fungicides
Explanation: Fungicides are used to kill fungi on crops.

Q135. For some people, playing is actually work. Below are some names of famous people, Pick the name whose work is actually playing.

(A) Ajeet Yogi
(B) Michael Jordan
(C) Jack Nicholson
(D) Steve Jobs

Answer: (B) Michael Jordan
Explanation: Michael Jordan is a professional basketball player; playing is his work.

Q136. Choose the correct option instead of the question mark in the given question. GOA : 761 :: KAIMUR : ?

(A) 119439
(B) 219339
(C) 219439
(D) 218349

Answer: (C) 219439
Explanation: Letter positions are reduced to a single digit: G=7, O=15→6, A=1 gives 761. K=11→2, A=1, I=9, M=13→4, U=21→3, R=18→9 gives 219439.

Q137. What will come in place of ? in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, ?, 258?

(A) 150,
(B) 155
(C) 160
(D) 176

Answer: (B) 155
Explanation: Pattern n³ + n(n+1): 1+2=3, 8+6=14, 27+12=39, 64+20=84, 125+30=155, 216+42=258.

Q138. Meena divides a number by 2. She then divides the answer by 2. This is the same as dividing the original number by:

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

Answer: (A) 4
Explanation: Dividing by 2 twice is the same as dividing by 2 × 2 = 4.

Q139. A class VI mathematics teacher posed the following problem to her students: “In a morning walk, three persons started together. Their steps measure 70 cm , 85 cm and 95 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that all can cover the same distance in complete steps?” Which of the following concepts would be required to solve the given problem?

(A) Concept of LCM
(B) Concept of division
(C) Concept of proportion
(D) Concept of HCF

Answer: (A) Concept of LCM
Explanation: The smallest distance covered in complete steps by all three is the LCM of 70, 85 and 95.

Q140. Out of 60 people in a colony, 10 speak only Bengali, 5 speak only Assamese, 10 speak both Hindi and Odia, 12 speak both Marathi and Hindi, 13 speak English, Tamil and Marathi, 5 speak both Assamese and Hindi and the remaining speak both Bengali and Hindi. How many people speak more than one language?

(A) 15
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55

Answer: (B) 45
Explanation: Only 10 (Bengali only) and 5 (Assamese only) speak a single language, so 60 − 15 = 45 speak more than one.

Q141. Pravin walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?

(A) 50 m.
(B) 40 m.
(C) 10 m.
(D) 20 m.

Answer: (D) 20 m.
Explanation: 30 m east, 20 m south, then 30 m west leaves him 20 m south of the start.

Q142. The statement related to the congruence of a triangle – “Given the length of any two sides and the length of these sides and the measure of the angle between these sides” – is a restriction/condition.

(A) SSS
(B) S.A.S.
(C) ASA
(D) RHS

Answer: (B) S.A.S.
Explanation: Two sides and the included angle is the SAS congruence rule.

Q143. The number of Bricks each measuring 25 cm x 12.5 cm x 7.5 cm required to construct a wall 6 m Long, 5 m High, and 0.5 m Thick, While the Mortar occupies 5 Percent of the Volume of the Wall is?

(A) 8819
(B) 6080
(C) 9011
(D) 2019

Answer: (B) 6080
Explanation: Wall = 6 × 5 × 0.5 = 15 m³; bricks fill 95% = 14.25 m³; one brick = 0.25 × 0.125 × 0.075 = 0.00234375 m³; 14.25 ÷ 0.00234375 = 6080.

Q144. India is divided into how many pin code zones?

(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Eight
(D) Ten

Answer: (C) Eight
Explanation: The first digit of a PIN code covers 8 regional zones (plus a 9th zone for the Army Postal Service); among the options, eight is the answer.

Q145. Which of the following is not an outdoor game?

(A) Football
(B) capture the flag
(C) Uno
(D) Frisbee

Answer: (C) Uno
Explanation: UNO is an indoor card game.

Q146. Mahendragiri, the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, is located in which one of the following states?

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Odisha
(C) Telangana
(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (B) Odisha
Explanation: Mahendragiri (1,501 m) is in Gajapati district, Odisha.

Q147. Plants manufacture their food with the help of………..

(A) Oxygen, Sunlight, Water
(B) Carbon dioxide , Oxygen, Sunlight
(C) Water, Sunlight, Carbon dioxide
(D) Oxygen, Sunlight

Answer: (C) Water, Sunlight, Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Photosynthesis uses water, sunlight and carbon dioxide (with chlorophyll).

Q148. Arrange the following in their chronological sequence : i. Cripps Mission ii. Montague Chelmsford Report iii. Simon Commission iv. Morley – Minto Reforms

(A) ii, iii, i, iv
(B) iv, ii, iii, i
(C) iii, i, ii, iv
(D) i, iv, iii, ii

Answer: (B) iv, ii, iii, i
Explanation: Morley-Minto (1909), Montagu-Chelmsford (1918), Simon Commission (1927), Cripps Mission (1942), so iv, ii, iii, i.

Q149. In the alphabet how many Letters will be in between 10th and 24th Letter form the left end ?

(A) 13
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 18

Answer: (A) 13
Explanation: Letters between positions 10 and 24 = 24 − 10 − 1 = 13.

Q150. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end ?

(A) Earthquakes
(B) Landslides
(C) Hurricanes
(D) Droughts

Answer: (D) Droughts
Explanation: Droughts develop slowly and have no definite beginning or end (a ‘creeping disaster’).

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