Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 2020 Re-Exam (Set B) with Answers

Looking for the Bihar STET Computer Science question paper 2020? Here is the complete Subject Paper Computer Science paper of the exam held on 2020 Re-Exam (Set B), with the correct answer and a short explanation for every question. All 150 questions are given as text, so you can practise them online, revise topic by topic and get a feel for the real exam pattern.

Note: These answers were prepared and checked by the ExamYaari team. They are not the official BSEB answer key. If you think an answer is wrong, tell us in the comments. This is the Bihar STET Re-Exam 2020 Computer Science paper (Subject Code 207, Set B). The exam date and shift are not printed on the question booklet.

Table of Contents

• Exam Overview
• Topic-wise Analysis
• Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills (Q1–50)
• Part II: Computer Science (Q51–150)
• More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers
• FAQs

Bihar STET Computer Science 2020: Exam Overview

Exam	Bihar STET 2020 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)
Conducting Body	Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB)
Paper	Subject Paper, Computer Science (Subject Code 207)
Exam Date	2020 Re-Exam
Shift / Time	Set B (2 hours 30 minutes)
Total Questions	150 MCQs
Part 1	Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills: Q1–50
Part 2	Part II: Computer Science: Q51–150

Topic-wise Analysis of Computer Science Questions

Here is roughly how the 100 Computer Science questions in this paper are spread across the syllabus. Use it to decide which topics to revise first.

Topic	No. of Questions
MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)	30
Other Topics	11
Computer Networks & Internet	11
Operating System	8
Computer Fundamentals & History	8
Data Structures & Algorithms	7
OOP Concepts	5
Database & SQL	5
E-commerce & IT Fundamentals	5
Digital Electronics & COA	3
Web Technology & HTML	3
Cyber Security & Ethics	1
Software Engineering	1
Theory of Computation	1
Image Processing & Multimedia	1

Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills (Q1–50)

Q1. A is the brother of B, C is the father of D, E is the mother of B, A and D are brothers. What is the relation of C with E?

(A) Sister
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Niece
(D) Wife

Answer: (D) Wife
Explanation: A, B and D are siblings, so E (mother of B) is also the mother of D. C is D’s father, so C is E’s husband, i.e. E is C’s wife.

Q2. Ashok started to move in the direction of north. After moving 30 m, he turned to his left and moved 40 m. Again he turned to his left and moved 30 m. Now how far is he from the starting point?

(A) 50 m
(B) 40 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 20 m

Answer: (B) 40 m
Explanation: 30 m north, 40 m west, 30 m south: the north-south moves cancel, leaving him 40 m west of the start.

Q3. If CHAIR is coded in a symbolic language as 53269 and EAR as 729, then how will HEAR be coded?

(A) 3792
(B) 3729
(C) 3972
(D) 3929

Answer: (B) 3729
Explanation: From the codes, H=3, E=7, A=2, R=9, so HEAR = 3729.

Q4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’ and ‘×’ means ‘÷’, what will be the value of 5 + 4 − 18 × 3?

(A) 26
(B) 14
(C) −34
(D) 6

Answer: (A) 26
Explanation: The expression becomes 5 × 4 + 18 ÷ 3 = 20 + 6 = 26.

Q5. [Figure-based question] Find the missing number. Eight numbers are arranged around a star: 49, 64, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25 and ?

(A) 35
(B) 41
(C) 36
(D) 40

Answer: (C) 36
Explanation: The numbers are the squares 1², 2², …, 8² (1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?, 49, 64), so the missing one is 6² = 36.

Q6. In which year was the ‘Planning Commission’ set up in India?

(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

Answer: (C) 1950
Explanation: The Planning Commission was set up on 15 March 1950.

Q7. Which of the following is the chemical formula of Bleaching Powder?

(A) Ca(OCl)Cl
(B) Na(OCl)Cl
(C) CaCO₃
(D) KMnO₄

Answer: (A) Ca(OCl)Cl
Explanation: Bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride, Ca(OCl)Cl (often written CaOCl₂).

Q8. National Education Day is celebrated on the birthday of

(A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Explanation: National Education Day (11 November) marks the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, India’s first Education Minister.

Q9. The binary system of computer uses powers of

(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16

Answer: (A) 2
Explanation: Binary is base 2, so each place value is a power of 2.

Q10. Which of the following aqueous solutions will turn blue litmus to red?

(A) Copper oxide
(B) Iron oxide
(C) Magnesium oxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide

Answer: (D) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation: SO₂ is a non-metal oxide; it dissolves to form sulphurous acid, which turns blue litmus red. The others are basic metal oxides.

Q11. Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced both naturally and as a result of industrial activity?

(A) Methane
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Chlorofluorocarbon

Answer: (D) Chlorofluorocarbon
Explanation: CFCs are entirely man-made; methane, nitrous oxide and CO₂ also have natural sources.

Q12. ‘Synectics’ is the method used for catering to which category of children?

(A) Gifted children
(B) Backward children
(C) Retarded children
(D) Creative children

Answer: (D) Creative children
Explanation: Synectics (W. J. J. Gordon) uses analogies and metaphors to develop creative thinking.

Q13. Where is the capital of Myanmar situated?

(A) Rangoon
(B) Yangoon
(C) Naypyitaw
(D) Burma

Answer: (C) Naypyitaw
Explanation: Naypyidaw has been Myanmar’s capital since 2005-06 (it replaced Yangon).

Q14. The first Indian Governor-General of independent India was

(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Surinder Nath
(D) B. R. Ambedkar

Answer: (B) C. Rajagopalachari
Explanation: C. Rajagopalachari (1948-50) was the first and only Indian Governor-General.

Q15. Mahatma Gandhi’s Champaran Movement was for which of the following?

(A) Civil disobedience movement
(B) Solving the problems of indigo workers
(C) The security rights of Harijans
(D) Maintaining the unity of Hindu Society

Answer: (B) Solving the problems of indigo workers
Explanation: The Champaran Satyagraha (1917, Bihar) was against the forced indigo cultivation (tinkathia) imposed on peasants.

Q16. The average of three consecutive odd numbers is 12 more than one third of the first of these numbers. What is the last of the three numbers?

(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) 19
Explanation: Let them be x, x+2, x+4. The average is x+2 = x/3 + 12, so x = 15 and the last number is 19.

Q17. Rs. 7,500 is to be divided among A, B and C such that A’s share to B’s share is in the ratio 5 : 2 and B’s share to C’s share is in the ratio 7 : 13. How much will B receive?

(A) Rs. 1,400
(B) Rs. 3,500
(C) Rs. 2,600
(D) Rs. 7,000

Answer: (A) Rs. 1,400
Explanation: A : B : C = 35 : 14 : 26 (total 75). B = 14/75 × 7500 = Rs. 1,400.

Q18. The diagonal of a square is 4√2 cm. The diagonal of another square whose area is double that of the first square is

(A) 8√2 cm
(B) 16 cm
(C) √32 cm
(D) 8 cm

Answer: (D) 8 cm
Explanation: The first square has side 4 and area 16. The second has area 32, so its diagonal = √(2 × 32) = 8 cm.

Q19. A train 100 m long is running at a speed of 30 km/hr. The time (in seconds) in which it passes a man standing on the railway platform is

(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 15

Answer: (C) 12
Explanation: 30 km/h = 25/3 m/s. Time = 100 ÷ (25/3) = 12 seconds.

Q20. If θ is a positive acute angle and 3(sec²θ + tan²θ) = 5, then the value of cos 2θ is

(A) 1/2
(B) √3/2
(C) 1/√2
(D) 1

Answer: (A) 1/2
Explanation: sec²θ = 1 + tan²θ, so 3(1 + 2tan²θ) = 5 and tan²θ = 1/3. Then θ = 30° and cos 60° = 1/2.

Q21. Which of the following is not used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor?

(A) Liquid sodium metal
(B) Water
(C) Carbon dioxide gas
(D) Heavy water

Answer: (D) Heavy water
Explanation: Heavy water is used mainly as a moderator. Liquid sodium, water and CO₂ are standard coolants. (Heavy water also cools some PHWRs, so this question is debatable.)

Q22. The Provincial Governments were constituted under the Act of

(A) 1932
(B) 1935
(C) 1936
(D) 1947

Answer: (B) 1935
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy; provincial governments were formed after the 1937 elections.

Q23. The highest coal-producing country in the world is which of the following?

(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) Russia

Answer: (C) China
Explanation: China is by far the world’s largest coal producer.

Q24. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to

(A) their distance from sea
(B) snowfall in Shimla
(C) pollution in Amritsar
(D) the difference in their altitudes

Answer: (D) the difference in their altitudes
Explanation: Shimla is about 2,200 m high, so it is much cooler than Amritsar on the plains.

Q25. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments?

(A) Chief Minister
(B) Speaker
(C) Judge of High Court
(D) Governor

Answer: (D) Governor
Explanation: The Governor is the constitutional (nominal) head of a state; the Chief Minister is the real executive.

Q26. The product of two positive integers is 2048 and one of them is twice the other. Then the smaller of the numbers is

(A) 32
(B) 64
(C) 16
(D) 1024

Answer: (A) 32
Explanation: x × 2x = 2048, so x² = 1024 and x = 32.

Q27. If √3 = 1.732 is given, then the value of (2 + √3)/(2 − √3) is

(A) 11.732
(B) 13.928
(C) 12.928
(D) 13.925

Answer: (B) 13.928
Explanation: Multiplying top and bottom by (2 + √3) gives (2 + √3)² = 7 + 4√3 = 7 + 6.928 = 13.928.

Q28. The LCM of two numbers is 1820 and their HCF is 26. If one number is 130, then the other number is

(A) 70
(B) 1690
(C) 364
(D) 1264

Answer: (C) 364
Explanation: Product = LCM × HCF, so the other number = 1820 × 26 ÷ 130 = 364.

Q29. If 120 is 20% of a number, then 120% of that number will be

(A) 20
(B) 120
(C) 480
(D) 720

Answer: (D) 720
Explanation: The number is 120 ÷ 0.2 = 600, and 120% of 600 = 720.

Q30. If the successive discounts are given as 20%, 10% and 5%, then the single equivalent discount is

(A) 31.6%
(B) 31.5%
(C) 31%
(D) 31.4%

Answer: (A) 31.6%
Explanation: Price after discounts = 0.80 × 0.90 × 0.95 = 0.684, so the single discount = 31.6%.

Q31. Who is the winner of the 46th National Women Chess Championship title held in July 2019?

(A) Pratyusha Bodda
(B) Bhakti Kulkarni
(C) Surabhi Verma
(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Bhakti Kulkarni
Explanation: Bhakti Kulkarni (Goa) won the 46th National Women’s Chess Championship in 2019.

Q32. At present (2020) the Vice-President of India is

(A) Nitin Gadkari
(B) Om Birla
(C) M. Venkaiah Naidu
(D) None of them

Answer: (C) M. Venkaiah Naidu
Explanation: M. Venkaiah Naidu was Vice-President from 2017 to 2022.

Q33. The National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement (NISHTHA) teachers’ training programme was launched on

(A) August 22, 2019
(B) August 22, 2018
(C) October 2, 2019
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) August 22, 2019
Explanation: NISHTHA was launched by the HRD Ministry in August 2019 (reported as 21/22 August 2019); option A is the intended answer.

Q34. According to the World Bank, which position is taken by India among the largest economies in the Global GDP Ranking, 2018?

(A) Fifth
(B) Seventh
(C) Third
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Seventh
Explanation: In the World Bank’s 2018 GDP ranking, India was the 7th largest economy.

Q35. Who submitted the report for the Draft National Education Policy, 2019 on May 31, 2019?

(A) Narendra Modi
(B) Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank
(C) K. Kasturirangan
(D) None of them

Answer: (C) K. Kasturirangan
Explanation: The committee headed by Dr K. Kasturirangan submitted the draft NEP on 31 May 2019.

Q36. Which option will take the place of (?) in the following letter pattern? BXF, DVI, FTL, HRO, ?

(A) JOL
(B) KPM
(C) KPL
(D) JPR

Answer: (D) JPR
Explanation: First letters +2 (B, D, F, H, J), second letters −2 (X, V, T, R, P), third letters +3 (F, I, L, O, R): JPR.

Q37. Which number will take the place of (?) in the following series? 144, 100, 64, ?, 16, 4

(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 36
(D) 63

Answer: (C) 36
Explanation: These are squares of even numbers: 12², 10², 8², 6², 4², 2², so ? = 36.

Q38. [Figure-based question] How many triangles are there in the given figure? (A triangle divided by one vertical line from the apex to the base and two horizontal lines.)

(A) 9
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 30

Answer: (A) 9
Explanation: Only shapes with the apex as a vertex are triangles: 3 apex-side pairs (left half, right half, whole) × 3 horizontal levels = 9.

Q39. If ‘Rajdoot’ is coded as ‘Car’, ‘Car’ as ‘Aeroplane’, ‘Aeroplane’ as ‘Train’, ‘Train’ as ‘Bus’, then by which vehicle can you reach your destination in least time?

(A) Aeroplane
(B) Train
(C) Car
(D) Bus

Answer: (B) Train
Explanation: The fastest vehicle is the aeroplane, and in this code an aeroplane is called ‘Train’.

Q40. If BLADE is coded in a symbolic language as SPTFA, then how will BALE be coded?

(A) STPA
(B) TSAP
(C) STAP
(D) TSPA

Answer: (A) STPA
Explanation: B=S, L=P, A=T, D=F, E=A, so BALE = S T P A.

Q41. What is the full form of USB as used in computer-related activities?

(A) United Serial Bus
(B) Ultra Security Block
(C) Universal Security Block
(D) Universal Serial Bus

Answer: (D) Universal Serial Bus
Explanation: USB = Universal Serial Bus.

Q42. Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place in

(A) 1930
(B) 1931
(C) 1932
(D) 1933

Answer: (B) 1931
Explanation: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5 March 1931.

Q43. Who was the father of the Indian Renaissance?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Shraddhananda
(D) Dayanand Saraswati

Answer: (B) Raja Rammohan Roy
Explanation: Raja Rammohan Roy, founder of the Brahmo Samaj, is called the father of the Indian Renaissance.

Q44. One nautical mile is equal to

(A) 1.551 km
(B) 1.852 km
(C) 2.012 km
(D) 1.644 km

Answer: (B) 1.852 km
Explanation: 1 nautical mile = 1.852 km.

Q45. Who was the Prime Minister of England at the time when India got independence?

(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Tony Blair
(C) Clement Attlee
(D) Margaret Thatcher

Answer: (C) Clement Attlee
Explanation: Clement Attlee (Labour) was British PM in 1947.

Q46. Which article of the Constitution of India is related to the Right to Education?

(A) Article 45
(B) Article 30(1)
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 15(1)

Answer: (C) Article 21A
Explanation: Article 21A (86th Amendment, 2002) makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6–14.

Q47. For which word has the letter ‘G’ been used in ‘2G spectrum’?

(A) Government
(B) Global
(C) Generation
(D) Google

Answer: (C) Generation
Explanation: 2G means second-generation mobile technology.

Q48. Mendel’s principle of inheritance is based on

(A) Sexual reproduction
(B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Vegetative reproduction
(D) All of these

Answer: (A) Sexual reproduction
Explanation: Mendel’s laws come from crossing pea plants, i.e. sexual reproduction.

Q49. Which component of plants receives the stimulus for flowering?

(A) Roots
(B) Stems
(C) Leaves
(D) Branches

Answer: (C) Leaves
Explanation: Leaves sense the photoperiod and produce the flowering signal (florigen).

Q50. ‘Do or Die’ is associated with the movement

(A) Non-cooperation
(B) Khilafat
(C) Dandi
(D) Quit India

Answer: (D) Quit India
Explanation: Gandhi gave the ‘Do or Die’ call at the start of the Quit India Movement in August 1942.

Part II: Computer Science (Q51–150)

Q51. Which of the following is/are word processing software?

(A) Word Perfect
(B) Easy Word
(C) MS Word
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: All three are word processors.

Q52. To perform I/O operations in C++, we must use the ________ header file.

(A) <iostream.h>
(B) <string.h>
(C) <math.h>
(D) <stdio.h>

Answer: (A) <iostream.h>
Explanation: cin and cout are declared in iostream.

Q53. Ctrl + N is used to

(A) Save Document
(B) Open Document
(C) Create New Document
(D) Close Document

Answer: (C) Create New Document
Explanation: Ctrl+N creates a new document; Ctrl+S saves and Ctrl+O opens.

Q54. C++ keywords are also called

(A) preprocessor
(B) punctuation symbols
(C) operators
(D) reserved words

Answer: (D) reserved words
Explanation: Keywords are reserved words that cannot be used as identifiers.

Q55. What are inserted as cross-reference in Word?

(A) Placeholders
(B) Bookmarks
(C) Objects
(D) Word fields

Answer: (B) Bookmarks
Explanation: A cross-reference points to items such as headings, captions and bookmarks; bookmarks are the expected answer.

Q56. Which of the following is not a Section Break option?

(A) Next Page
(B) Previous Page
(C) Odd Page
(D) Even Page

Answer: (B) Previous Page
Explanation: Word’s section breaks are Next Page, Continuous, Even Page and Odd Page; there is no ‘Previous Page’.

Q57. DBMS stands for

(A) Database Management System
(B) Database Master System
(C) Database Management Structure
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Database Management System
Explanation: DBMS = Database Management System.

Q58. By default, on which page is the header or the footer printed?

(A) On first page
(B) On alternate page
(C) On every page
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) On every page
Explanation: Headers and footers repeat on every page unless set otherwise.

Q59. Which operator has the highest precedence among *, / and %?

(A) *
(B) /
(C) %
(D) All have same precedence

Answer: (D) All have same precedence
Explanation: *, / and % share the same precedence and associate left to right.

Q60. Ctrl + G executes

(A) Open Paragraph dialog box activating Goto tab
(B) Open Page Setup dialog box activating Goto tab
(C) Open Find and Replace dialog box activating Goto tab
(D) Open Goto dialog box

Answer: (C) Open Find and Replace dialog box activating Goto tab
Explanation: In Word, Ctrl+G opens the Find and Replace dialog with the Go To tab active.

Q61. What is a Firewall in a computer network?

(A) The physical boundary of network
(B) An operating system of computer network
(C) A system designed to prevent unauthorized access
(D) A web browsing software

Answer: (C) A system designed to prevent unauthorized access
Explanation: A firewall filters traffic to block unauthorised access to or from a network.

Q62. The IETF standards documents are called

(A) RFC
(B) RCF
(C) ID
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) RFC
Explanation: IETF standards are published as RFCs (Request for Comments).

Q63. Which data communication method is used to transmit data over a serial communication link?

(A) Simplex
(B) Half-duplex
(C) Full-duplex
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: A serial link can work in simplex, half-duplex or full-duplex mode.

Q64. What is the minimum header size of an IP packet?

(A) 16 bytes
(B) 10 bytes
(C) 20 bytes
(D) 32 bytes

Answer: (C) 20 bytes
Explanation: An IPv4 header is 20 bytes without options (max 60).

Q65. The routing table of a router keeps track of

(A) MAC address assignments
(B) Port assignments to network devices
(C) Distributed IP addresses to network devices
(D) Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination

Answer: (D) Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination
Explanation: A routing table stores routes (destination network, next hop, interface) for forwarding packets.

Q66. Which of the following is not an External Security Threat?

(A) Front-door Threats
(B) Back-door Threats
(C) Underground Threats
(D) Denial of Service

Answer: (C) Underground Threats
Explanation: Front-door, back-door and DoS are recognised external threats; ‘underground threats’ is not a standard category.

Q67. What is the IP address range of APIPA?

(A) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.254
(B) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.255
(C) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
(D) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.255

Answer: (C) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
Explanation: APIPA self-assigns addresses from 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 when no DHCP server answers.

Q68. Which of the following is not a possible way of data exchange?

(A) Simplex
(B) Multiplex
(C) Half-duplex
(D) Full-duplex

Answer: (B) Multiplex
Explanation: Transmission modes are simplex, half-duplex and full-duplex; multiplexing is a channel-sharing technique.

Q69. The management of data flow between computers or devices or between nodes in a network is called

(A) Flow control
(B) Data Control
(C) Data Management
(D) Flow Management

Answer: (A) Flow control
Explanation: Flow control stops a fast sender from overwhelming a slow receiver.

Q70. What does the port number in a TCP connection specify?

(A) It specifies the communication process on the two end systems
(B) It specifies the quality of the data & connection
(C) It specifies the size of data
(D) All of these

Answer: (A) It specifies the communication process on the two end systems
Explanation: A port number identifies the application process at each end.

Q71. ________ is a basic data type.

(A) Array
(B) Struct
(C) Boolean
(D) Int

Answer: (D) Int
Explanation: int is a primitive (basic) data type; array and struct are derived/user-defined. (In C++, bool is also built in, but int is the expected answer.)

Q72. Which option can be used to set custom timing for slides in a presentation?

(A) Slider Timing
(B) Slider Timer
(C) Rehearsal
(D) Slide Show Setup

Answer: (C) Rehearsal
Explanation: ‘Rehearse Timings’ records how long each slide is shown.

Q73. Variables which can be accessed only inside a module of the program are called

(A) Global
(B) Auto
(C) Static
(D) Local

Answer: (D) Local
Explanation: Local variables are visible only within the block or module where they are declared.

Q74. Which key can be used to view a slide show?

(A) F5
(B) F2
(C) F7
(D) F8

Answer: (A) F5
Explanation: F5 starts the slide show from the first slide.

Q75. To store character or text data we need

(A) numeric variable
(B) string variable
(C) logical function
(D) array

Answer: (B) string variable
Explanation: Text is stored in string variables.

Q76. How can we stop a slide show?

(A) Press the right arrow
(B) Press Ctrl+A
(C) Press Escape
(D) Press Ctrl+S

Answer: (C) Press Escape
Explanation: Esc ends the slide show.

Q77. PowerPoint can display data from which of the following add-in software of MS Office?

(A) Organization Chart
(B) Photo Album
(C) Equation Editor
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: PowerPoint can embed objects from all of these add-ins.

Q78. The spelling dialog box can be invoked by choosing spelling from the ________ menu.

(A) Tools
(B) View
(C) File
(D) Insert

Answer: (A) Tools
Explanation: In classic Office, Spelling and Grammar is in the Tools menu.

Q79. Which one is a primary key in a bank customer table?

(A) UID number
(B) Admission number
(C) Account number
(D) PAN

Answer: (C) Account number
Explanation: The account number uniquely identifies each record in a bank’s customer/account table.

Q80. A PowerPoint slide can have

(A) title, text, graphs
(B) drawn objects, shapes
(C) clipart, drawn art, visual
(D) any of these

Answer: (D) any of these
Explanation: A slide can hold any of these elements.

Q81. Right clicking on something in Word

(A) deletes the object
(B) is nothing but the right mouse button is there for left handed people
(C) opens the short-cut list
(D) inserts the picture

Answer: (C) opens the short-cut list
Explanation: Right-click opens the context (shortcut) menu.

Q82. >= is a/an

(A) instance
(B) design
(C) data type
(D) operator

Answer: (D) operator
Explanation: >= is the relational ‘greater than or equal to’ operator.

Q83. The autocorrect tool

(A) provides statistics about your document
(B) displays words with the same or similar meaning
(C) checks the grammar in the document
(D) checks for misspelled words as you type and corrects them as defined

Answer: (D) checks for misspelled words as you type and corrects them as defined
Explanation: AutoCorrect fixes common typos automatically as you type.

Q84. Which is encapsulated in a class?

(A) Program & Process
(B) Function and Data
(C) File and Disk
(D) Variable and Constant

Answer: (B) Function and Data
Explanation: A class bundles data members and member functions together.

Q85. To display the hyperlink field in a Word document, you can press the

(A) Ctrl + Shift + F9 key
(B) Shift + F9 key
(C) Ctrl + Alt key
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Shift + F9 key
Explanation: Shift+F9 toggles between the field code and its result for the selected field; Ctrl+Shift+F9 unlinks fields.

Q86. Which is an Abstract data type?

(A) class
(B) double
(C) int
(D) string

Answer: (A) class
Explanation: A class defines data and operations while hiding the implementation, which makes it an ADT.

Q87. To cut or copy text you must first

(A) Click the remove/duplicate button
(B) Highlight the text and click the Copy or Cut command from the Edit menu
(C) Click on File menu
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Highlight the text and click the Copy or Cut command from the Edit menu
Explanation: Text must be selected before it can be cut or copied.

Q88. Which is correct for inheritance?

(A) Animal to Cat
(B) Variable to constant
(C) Lock to key
(D) Data to Program

Answer: (A) Animal to Cat
Explanation: Inheritance is an ‘is-a’ relationship: a Cat is an Animal.

Q89. The command Cross reference is available in the

(A) View menu
(B) Format menu
(C) Insert menu
(D) Tools menu

Answer: (C) Insert menu
Explanation: In classic Word: Insert > Reference > Cross-reference.

Q90. A column or field of a table is called

(A) Data type
(B) Row name
(C) Attribute
(D) Entity name

Answer: (C) Attribute
Explanation: In the relational model, a column is an attribute.

Q91. TCP/IP is a

(A) Network Hardware
(B) Network Software
(C) Protocol
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Protocol
Explanation: TCP/IP is the protocol suite of the Internet.

Q92. OSI stands for

(A) Open Soft ID
(B) Open System ID
(C) Open System Interconnection
(D) Open Source Information

Answer: (C) Open System Interconnection
Explanation: OSI = Open Systems Interconnection, the 7-layer reference model.

Q93. The Internet was originally a project of which agency?

(A) ARPA
(B) NSF
(C) NSA
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) ARPA
Explanation: It began as ARPANET, funded by ARPA of the US Department of Defense.

Q94. HTML is used to create

(A) machine language program
(B) high level program
(C) web page
(D) web server

Answer: (C) web page
Explanation: HTML is the markup language for web pages.

Q95. The computer jargon WWWW stands for

(A) World Wide Web Worm
(B) World Wide Wildlife Web
(C) World Wide Women’s Web
(D) World Wide Women’s Week

Answer: (A) World Wide Web Worm
Explanation: The World Wide Web Worm (1993) was one of the earliest web search engines.

Q96. A website’s front page/main page is called

(A) Browser Page
(B) Search Page
(C) Home Page
(D) Bookmark

Answer: (C) Home Page
Explanation: A site’s main page is its home page.

Q97. Full form of HTML is

(A) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links
(D) Hyper Text Manipulate Links

Answer: (A) Hyper Text Markup Language
Explanation: HTML = HyperText Markup Language.

Q98. A computer network is a

(A) Collection of hardware components and computers
(B) Interconnected by communication channels
(C) Sharing of resources and information
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: A network is interconnected computers and devices sharing resources and information.

Q99. Protocols are

(A) Agreements on how communication components and DTEs are to communicate
(B) Logical communication channels for transferring data
(C) Physical communication channels used for transferring data
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Agreements on how communication components and DTEs are to communicate
Explanation: A protocol is a set of rules for how devices communicate.

Q100. Two devices are in a network if

(A) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
(B) a process is running on both devices
(C) PIDs of the processes running on different devices are same
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
Explanation: Being networked means processes on different devices can exchange data.

Q101. A high quality CAD system uses which of the following for printing drawings and graphs?

(A) Dot matrix printer
(B) Digital plotter
(C) Line printer
(D) All of these

Answer: (B) Digital plotter
Explanation: Plotters draw precise vector lines, which makes them ideal for CAD drawings.

Q102. Which of the following is not an input device?

(A) OCR
(B) Optical scanners
(C) Voice recognition device
(D) COM (Computer Output to Microfilm)

Answer: (D) COM (Computer Output to Microfilm)
Explanation: COM is an output method; OCR, scanners and voice recognition are inputs.

Q103. The accuracy of floating-point numbers representable in two 16-bit words of a computer is approximately

(A) 16 digits
(B) 6 digits
(C) 9 digits
(D) All of these

Answer: (B) 6 digits
Explanation: Two 16-bit words make a 32-bit single-precision float, which has about 6–7 significant decimal digits.

Q104. A CPU contains

(A) a card reader and a printing device
(B) an analytical engine and a control unit
(C) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit
(D) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

Answer: (C) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit
Explanation: The CPU is made up of the control unit and the ALU (plus registers).

Q105. In most IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drivers, memory expansion slots and active components are mounted on a single board. What is the name of this board?

(A) Motherboard
(B) Breadboard
(C) Daughter board
(D) Grandmother board

Answer: (A) Motherboard
Explanation: The main circuit board is the motherboard.

Q106. Magnetic disks are the most popular medium for

(A) Direct access
(B) Sequential access
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Direct access
Explanation: A disk head can jump straight to any track or sector, allowing direct (random) access.

Q107. A technique used by codecs to convert an analog signal into a digital bit stream is known as

(A) Pulse code modulation
(B) Pulse stretcher
(C) Query processing
(D) Queue management

Answer: (A) Pulse code modulation
Explanation: PCM samples, quantises and encodes an analog signal into bits.

Q108. Regarding a VDU, which statement is more correct?

(A) It is an output device
(B) It is an input device
(C) It is a peripheral device
(D) It is a hardware item

Answer: (A) It is an output device
Explanation: A VDU (monitor) displays output, so ‘output device’ is the most specific answer.

Q109. A modern electronic computer is a machine that is meant for

(A) Doing quick mathematical calculations
(B) Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data
(C) Electronic data processing
(D) Performing repetitive tasks accurately

Answer: (B) Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data
Explanation: This option covers the full input-process-store-output cycle.

Q110. When was the vacuum tube invented?

(A) 1900
(B) 1906
(C) 1910
(D) 1880

Answer: (B) 1906
Explanation: Fleming’s diode came in 1904 and De Forest’s triode (Audion) in 1906; 1906 is the closest option.

Q111. The main electronic component used in first generation computers was

(A) Transistors
(B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
(C) Integrated Circuits
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
Explanation: First-generation computers (1940s–50s) used vacuum tubes; transistors came in the second generation.

Q112. A dumb terminal has

(A) an embedded microprocessor
(B) extensive memory
(C) independent processing capability
(D) a keyboard and screen

Answer: (D) a keyboard and screen
Explanation: A dumb terminal is just a keyboard and display with no processing power of its own.

Q113. One millisecond is

(A) 1 second
(B) 10th of a second
(C) 1000th of a second
(D) 10000th of a second

Answer: (C) 1000th of a second
Explanation: 1 ms = 1/1000 second.

Q114. Modern computers are very reliable but they are not

(A) Fast
(B) Powerful
(C) Infallible
(D) Cheap

Answer: (C) Infallible
Explanation: Computers can still fail or give wrong results from faulty input or programs (GIGO), so they are not infallible.

Q115. Which of the following was a special purpose computer?

(A) ABC
(B) ENIAC
(C) EDVAC
(D) All of these

Answer: (A) ABC
Explanation: The Atanasoff-Berry Computer was built only to solve systems of linear equations.

Q116. SMPS stands for

(A) Switched Mode Power Supply
(B) Start Mode Power Supply
(C) Store Mode Power Supply
(D) Single Mode Power Supply

Answer: (A) Switched Mode Power Supply
Explanation: SMPS = Switched Mode Power Supply.

Q117. Which of the following storage devices can store the maximum amount of data?

(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Compact Disk
(D) Magneto-optic Disk

Answer: (B) Hard Disk
Explanation: Of these, a hard disk has by far the largest capacity.

Q118. Which computer was considered the first electronic computer until 1973 when a court invalidated its patent?

(A) ENIAC
(B) MARK I
(C) Z3
(D) ABC

Answer: (A) ENIAC
Explanation: In Honeywell v. Sperry Rand (1973) the ENIAC patent was invalidated, and credit went to Atanasoff’s ABC.

Q119. A physical connection between the microprocessor, memory and other parts of the microcomputer is known as

(A) Path
(B) Address bus
(C) Route
(D) All of these

Answer: (B) Address bus
Explanation: These parts are connected by buses; of the options, the address bus is the intended answer.

Q120. High density, double sided floppy disks could store ________ of data.

(A) 1.40 MB
(B) 1.44 GB
(C) 1.40 GB
(D) 1.44 MB

Answer: (D) 1.44 MB
Explanation: A 3.5-inch HD DS floppy holds 1.44 MB.

Q121. You can auto fit the width of a column by

(A) double clicking on the column name on column header
(B) double clicking on the cell pointer in worksheet
(C) double clicking on column right border on column header
(D) double clicking on the column left border of column header

Answer: (C) double clicking on column right border on column header
Explanation: Double-clicking the right border of a column header auto-fits the column width.

Q122. MS Excel provides the default value ________ for step in the Fill Series dialog box.

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 10

Answer: (B) 1
Explanation: The default step value is 1.

Q123. Ctrl + D shortcut key in Excel will

(A) open the font dialog box
(B) apply double underline for the active cell
(C) fill down in the selection
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) fill down in the selection
Explanation: Ctrl+D copies the top cell down through the selection (Fill Down).

Q124. The shortcut key Ctrl + R is used in Excel to

(A) Right align the content of cell
(B) Remove the cell contents of selected cells
(C) Fill the selection with active cells to the right
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Fill the selection with active cells to the right
Explanation: Ctrl+R is Fill Right.

Q125. The command Edit >> Fill Across Worksheets is active only when

(A) one sheet is selected
(B) many sheets are selected
(C) no sheet is selected
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) many sheets are selected
Explanation: Fill Across Worksheets copies data to other sheets, so several sheets must be grouped.

Q126. Which of the following series types is not valid for the Fill Series dialog box?

(A) Linear
(B) Growth
(C) Auto fill
(D) Time

Answer: (D) Time
Explanation: The Type options are Linear, Growth, Date and AutoFill; there is no ‘Time’ type.

Q127. Which of the following can you paste selectively using the Paste Special command?

(A) Validation
(B) Formats
(C) Formulas
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: Paste Special can paste formulas, values, formats, validation and more.

Q128. Paste Special allows some operations while you paste to a new cell. Which of the following operations is valid?

(A) Square
(B) Percentage
(C) Goal Seek
(D) Divide

Answer: (D) Divide
Explanation: Paste Special’s operations are Add, Subtract, Multiply and Divide.

Q129. Edit >> Delete command

(A) deletes the content of a cell
(B) deletes formats of cell
(C) deletes the comment of cell
(D) deletes selected cells

Answer: (D) deletes selected cells
Explanation: Delete removes the cells themselves and shifts the surrounding cells; Clear removes only the contents or formats.

Q130. To remove the content of selected cells you must issue the ________ command.

(A) Edit >> Delete
(B) Edit >> Clear >> Contents
(C) Edit >> Clear >> All
(D) Data >> Delete

Answer: (B) Edit >> Clear >> Contents
Explanation: Clear > Contents removes only the contents and keeps the cells and formats.

Q131. What will be the output of the following line of code?

int A;
A = 10;
A++;
cout << A;

(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 0
(D) 9

Answer: (B) 11
Explanation: A is set to 10, then A++ makes it 11, so cout prints 11.

Q132. Which shortcut key inserts a new slide in the current presentation?

(A) Ctrl + N
(B) Ctrl + M
(C) Ctrl + S
(D) All of these

Answer: (B) Ctrl + M
Explanation: Ctrl+M inserts a new slide; Ctrl+N creates a new presentation.

Q133. Primary key is also called

(A) Candidate key
(B) Super key
(C) Alternate key
(D) Non key

Answer: (A) Candidate key
Explanation: A primary key is the candidate key chosen to identify rows; the other candidate keys are alternate keys.

Q134. Which of the following methods can insert a new slide in the current presentation?

(A) Right click on the Slide panel and choose New Slide
(B) From Insert menu choose New Slide
(C) Click on New Slide button on toolbar
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: All three methods add a new slide.

Q135. Android is a/an

(A) operating system
(B) compiler
(C) editor
(D) interpreter

Answer: (A) operating system
Explanation: Android is a Linux-based mobile operating system.

Q136. What is the best way to create another copy of a slide?

(A) Click the slide then press Ctrl+A and paste in new slide
(B) From Insert menu choose Duplicate Slide
(C) Redo everything on a new slide that you had done on previous slide
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) From Insert menu choose Duplicate Slide
Explanation: Duplicate Slide copies the slide with all its content and formatting.

Q137. Float is a/an

(A) value
(B) variable
(C) operator
(D) data type

Answer: (D) data type
Explanation: float is a data type for single-precision decimal numbers.

Q138. From which menu can you access Picture, Text Box, Chart etc.?

(A) File
(B) Edit
(C) Insert
(D) View

Answer: (C) Insert
Explanation: Pictures, text boxes and charts are added from the Insert menu.

Q139. The term ‘Data’ refers to ________ and information refers to ________.

(A) Raw & New
(B) Raw & Old
(C) Old & Processed
(D) Raw & Processed

Answer: (D) Raw & Processed
Explanation: Data is raw facts; information is processed, meaningful data.

Q140. To insert slide numbers

(A) Insert a text box and select Insert >> Page Number
(B) Insert a text box and select Insert >> Number >> Page Number
(C) Choose Insert >> Slide Number
(D) Insert a new text box and select Insert >> Slide Number

Answer: (C) Choose Insert >> Slide Number
Explanation: Insert > Slide Number adds numbering to slides.

Q141. By default Excel provides 3 worksheets. You need only two of them. How will you delete the third one?

(A) Right click on Sheet Tab of third sheet and choose Delete from the context menu
(B) Click on Sheet 3 and from Edit menu choose Delete
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Right click on Sheet Tab of third sheet and choose Delete from the context menu
Explanation: Right-clicking the sheet tab and choosing Delete removes the sheet; Edit > Delete only deletes cells.

Q142. Which of the following actions removes a sheet from a workbook?

(A) Select the sheet, then choose Edit >> Delete Sheet
(B) Select the sheet, then choose Format >> Sheet >> Hide
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Select the sheet, then choose Edit >> Delete Sheet
Explanation: Delete Sheet removes it; Hide only hides it.

Q143. While finding and replacing some data in Excel, which of the following statements is valid?

(A) You can find and replace within the sheet or workbook
(B) Excel does not have option to match case for find
(C) Both are valid
(D) None are valid

Answer: (A) You can find and replace within the sheet or workbook
Explanation: Find & Replace can search a sheet or the whole workbook, and it does have a Match case option.

Q144. Rounding errors can occur

(A) when you use multiplication, division, or exponentiation in a formula
(B) when you use addition and subtraction in a formula
(C) because Excel uses hidden decimal places in computation
(D) when you show the results of formulas with different decimal places than the calculated results

Answer: (A) when you use multiplication, division, or exponentiation in a formula
Explanation: Multiplication, division and powers produce long decimals, which leads to rounding errors.

Q145. You can copy data or formulas

(A) With the copy, paste and cut commands on the edit menu
(B) With commands on the shortcut menu
(C) With buttons on the standard toolbars
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: All three methods work.

Q146. You cannot link Excel worksheet data to a Word document

(A) With the right drag method
(B) With a hyperlink
(C) With the copy and paste special commands
(D) With the copy and paste buttons on the standard toolbar

Answer: (D) With the copy and paste buttons on the standard toolbar
Explanation: A plain copy-paste embeds a static copy; linking needs Paste Special (Paste Link), a hyperlink or a right-drag.

Q147. Which of the following is a popular DOS based spreadsheet package?

(A) Word
(B) Smart cell
(C) Excel
(D) Lotus 1-2-3

Answer: (D) Lotus 1-2-3
Explanation: Lotus 1-2-3 was the leading DOS spreadsheet.

Q148. An Excel workbook is a collection of

(A) Workbooks
(B) Worksheets
(C) Charts
(D) Worksheets and charts

Answer: (D) Worksheets and charts
Explanation: A workbook can contain both worksheets and chart sheets.

Q149. Excel files have a default extension of

(A) Xls
(B) Xlw
(C) Wk1
(D) 123

Answer: (A) Xls
Explanation: .xls was the default before Excel 2007 (now .xlsx).

Q150. You can use the Format Painter multiple times before you turn it off by

(A) You can use the format painter button only one time when you click it
(B) Double clicking the format painter button
(C) Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the format painter button
(D) Pressing the Alt key and clicking the format painter button

Answer: (B) Double clicking the format painter button
Explanation: Double-clicking Format Painter keeps it on until you press Esc or click it again.

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