Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 12 September 2023 (Shift 1) with Answers

Looking for the Bihar STET Computer Science question paper 2023? Here is the complete Paper II (Class 11-12) Computer Science paper of the exam held on 12 September 2023 (Shift 1), with the correct answer and a short explanation for every question. All 150 questions are given as text, so you can practise them online, revise topic by topic and get a feel for the real exam pattern.

Note: These answers were prepared and checked by the ExamYaari team. They are not the official BSEB answer key. If you think an answer is wrong, tell us in the comments.

Table of Contents

• Exam Overview
• Topic-wise Analysis
• Computer Science (Q1–100)
• Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)
• General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)
• More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers
• FAQs

Bihar STET Computer Science 2023: Exam Overview

Exam	Bihar STET 2023 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)
Conducting Body	Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB)
Paper	Paper II (Class 11-12), Computer Science (Subject Code 226)
Exam Date	12 September 2023
Shift / Time	Shift 1 (10:00 AM – 12:30 PM)
Total Questions	150 MCQs
Part 1	Computer Science: Q1–100
Part 2	Teaching Aptitude: Q101–130
Part 3	General Awareness & Reasoning: Q131–150

Topic-wise Analysis of Computer Science Questions

Here is roughly how the 100 Computer Science questions in this paper are spread across the syllabus. Use it to decide which topics to revise first.

Topic	No. of Questions
Data Structures & Algorithms	19
Digital Electronics & COA	14
OOP Concepts	11
Computer Networks & Internet	9
E-commerce & IT Fundamentals	8
Other Topics	7
Operating System	7
Theory of Computation	5
Database & SQL	4
Software Engineering	3
IoT & Emerging Tech	3
Image Processing & Multimedia	3
Cyber Security & Ethics	2
Web Technology & HTML	2
Artificial Intelligence	2
Computer Fundamentals & History	1

Computer Science (Q1–100)

Q1. What is the simplified expression for the Boolean function F(A, B, C, D) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14) using the K-map method?

(A) A’B’C’D’ + A’B’C’D + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABCD
(B) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABC’D + ABCD
(C) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D + ABC’D + ABCD
(D) A’B’C’D’ + A’BC’D’ + A’BCD + ABCD

Answer: (A) A’B’C’D’ + A’B’C’D + A’BC’D + AB’C’D + ABCD
Explanation: The minterms cover every cell except those where C = D = 1, so the true minimum is F = C′ + D′. None of the options is simplified; A is the closest of the expressions given.

Q2. In a PLA, what components are used to implement the combinational logic functions?

(A) AND gates and OR gates
(B) NAND gates and XOR gates
(C) NOR gates and XNOR gates
(D) NOT gates and multiplexers

Answer: (A) AND gates and OR gates
Explanation: A PLA has a programmable AND array followed by a programmable OR array, so it implements functions in sum-of-products form.

Q3. Which type of register is primarily used to temporarily hold data during arithmetic and logical operations in a microprocessor?

(A) Shift register
(B) Parallel register
(C) Accumulator register
(D) Counter register

Answer: (C) Accumulator register
Explanation: The accumulator holds one operand and the result of ALU operations.

Q4. Which logic family uses both depletion and enhancement mode MOSFETs for its operation?

(A) TTL
(B) ECL
(C) PMOS
(D) CMOS

Answer: (D) CMOS
Explanation: CMOS uses complementary MOSFET pairs (n-channel and p-channel enhancement devices). Among the options, CMOS is the family built from both MOSFET types.

Q5. What is the primary difference between ROM and RAM?

(A) ROM is faster than RAM
(B) ROM is volatile, while RAM is non-volatile
(C) ROM is used for data storage, while RAM is used for program execution
(D) ROM stores permanent data that cannot be changed, while RAM stores temporary data that can be read and written

Answer: (D) ROM stores permanent data that cannot be changed, while RAM stores temporary data that can be read and written
Explanation: ROM is non-volatile and holds permanent data; RAM is volatile read/write memory.

Q6. Given a Boolean function F(A, B, C) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 3, 5), what is the expression in SOP form?

(A) A’B’ + AB’ + AB + AC
(B) A + B + C
(C) AB’ + C’
(D) A’B’C’

Answer: (A) A’B’ + AB’ + AB + AC
Explanation: Σ(0,1,2,3,5) actually simplifies to A′ + B′C. None of the options is exactly right; A is the closest given.

Q7. If the sum of two positive binary numbers is 11010 and there is a carry-out from the MSB, what should be done to obtain the correct result?

(A) Discard the carry
(B) Add the carry to the least significant bit (LSB)
(C) Add the carry to the most significant bit (MSB)
(D) Subtract the carry from the MSB

Answer: (B) Add the carry to the least significant bit (LSB)
Explanation: This describes the end-around carry: in 1’s-complement addition, a carry out of the MSB is added back to the LSB.

Q8. In binary multiplication using the simple method, what is the first step after aligning the digits and preparing for multiplication?

(A) Multiply the least significant bit (LSB) by the multiplier
(B) Multiply the most significant bit (MSB) by the multiplier
(C) Multiply the least significant bit (LSB) by the multiplicand
(D) Multiply the most significant bit (MSB) by the multiplicand

Answer: (A) Multiply the least significant bit (LSB) by the multiplier
Explanation: In paper-and-pencil binary multiplication, you start by multiplying with the LSB of the multiplier to form the first partial product.

Q9. What is the relationship between the distance between parity bits and their error detection and correction capability in Hamming Code?

(A) Closer parity bits provide higher error correction capability
(B) Closer parity bits provide lower error correction capability
(C) Distance between parity bits has no impact on error correction capability
(D) The position of parity bits is irrelevant in Hamming Code

Answer: (B) Closer parity bits provide lower error correction capability
Explanation: In Hamming code the parity bits sit at positions 1, 2, 4, 8…; the option given in the official key says closer parity bits give lower correction capability.

Q10. To convert a Gray Code to its binary equivalent, which technique is commonly used?

(A) Subtraction method
(B) Addition method
(C) Exclusive OR (XOR) operation
(D) Division method

Answer: (C) Exclusive OR (XOR) operation
Explanation: Gray-to-binary: the MSB is copied, then each binary bit = previous binary bit XOR the current Gray bit.

Q11. Which component of an ideal microcomputer is responsible for temporarily holding data and instructions during processing?

(A) CPU
(B) ALU
(C) Memory
(D) Output devices

Answer: (C) Memory
Explanation: Memory temporarily holds the data and instructions the CPU is processing.

Q12. How is the width of the data bus typically measured in a microcomputer system?

(A) In kilobytes (KB)
(B) In megahertz (MHz)
(C) In bits
(D) In address lines

Answer: (C) In bits
Explanation: Data-bus width is measured in bits (8, 16, 32, 64-bit).

Q13. Microcontrollers find application in various fields. What is a typical application of microcontrollers in the automotive industry?

(A) Operating systems for computers
(B) Entertainment systems in airplanes
(C) Engine control in cars
(D) Weather forecasting systems

Answer: (C) Engine control in cars
Explanation: Microcontrollers in ECUs control fuel injection, ignition timing and similar engine functions.

Q14. Which data structure often results in a time-space tradeoff by using extra memory to speed up operations?

(A) Arrays
(B) Linked lists
(C) Hash tables
(D) Stacks

Answer: (C) Hash tables
Explanation: Hash tables use extra memory (the table) to get near O(1) search, a classic time-space tradeoff.

Q15. Which term refers to the strategy of optimizing an algorithm’s use of resources, often by making sacrifices in one aspect for improvements in another?

(A) Greedy algorithm
(B) Divide and conquer
(C) Dynamic programming
(D) Tradeoff

Answer: (D) Tradeoff
Explanation: Giving up one resource (e.g. memory) to improve another (e.g. speed) is called a tradeoff.

Q16. Conditional asymptotic notation allows for a more nuanced analysis of algorithm behavior under specific conditions. This is particularly useful when:

(A) Analyzing algorithms with constant time complexity
(B) The input size is fixed
(C) The input data is random
(D) Algorithm behavior varies based on certain input characteristics

Answer: (D) Algorithm behavior varies based on certain input characteristics
Explanation: Conditional asymptotic notation is used when an algorithm’s behaviour depends on conditions on the input (e.g. n being a power of 2).

Q17. If an algorithm’s behavior is bounded by “o(f(n)) if g(n)”, what notation does it become when the condition is removed?

(A) o(f(n))
(B) o(g(n))
(C) o(f(n) + g(n))
(D) o(f(n) * g(n))

Answer: (A) o(f(n))
Explanation: When the condition is removed, the bound remains expressed in terms of f(n).

Q18. The recurrence equation T(n) = T(n/2) + 1 represents the time complexity of which algorithmic paradigm?

(A) Divide and Conquer
(B) Greedy Algorithms
(C) Dynamic Programming
(D) Brute Force

Answer: (A) Divide and Conquer
Explanation: T(n) = T(n/2) + 1 is the recurrence of binary search, a divide-and-conquer algorithm (O(log n)).

Q19. Divide and Conquer is an algorithmic paradigm that solves problems by:

(A) Iteratively solving subproblems
(B) Recursively solving subproblems
(C) Using heuristics to find solutions
(D) Greedily combining solutions

Answer: (B) Recursively solving subproblems
Explanation: Divide and conquer splits a problem into subproblems, solves them recursively and combines the results.

Q20. A threaded binary tree is a binary tree in which:

(A) Each node has two children
(B) Each node has at most one child
(C) Each node is connected to its parent
(D) Each node has a thread connecting it to its predecessor or successor

Answer: (D) Each node has a thread connecting it to its predecessor or successor
Explanation: In a threaded binary tree, null child pointers are replaced by threads to the in-order predecessor or successor.

Q21. Which traversal algorithm is typically implemented using a stack data structure?

(A) DFS
(B) BFS
(C) Both DFS and BFS
(D) Neither DFS nor BFS

Answer: (A) DFS
Explanation: DFS uses a stack (explicitly or through recursion); BFS uses a queue.

Q22. In a directed graph, an edge that points from vertex A to vertex B is denoted as:

(A) (A, B)
(B) [A, B]
(C) <A, B>
(D) {A, B}

Answer: (C) <A, B>
Explanation: A directed edge from A to B is written as the ordered pair <A, B>; (A, B) is normally used for undirected edges.

Q23. Separate chaining involves storing collided elements in separate data structures, typically in:

(A) Linked lists
(B) Arrays
(C) Stacks
(D) Queues

Answer: (A) Linked lists
Explanation: In separate chaining, each table slot points to a linked list of the keys that hash to it.

Q24. Which collision resolution technique involves placing collided elements in the next available empty slot in the hash table?

(A) Linear probing
(B) Quadratic probing
(C) Separate chaining
(D) Double hashing

Answer: (A) Linear probing
Explanation: Linear probing places a colliding key in the next free slot (h+1, h+2, …).

Q25. In the Tower of Hanoi problem with “n” disks, how many moves are required to solve the problem?

(A) n
(B) 2n
(C) 2^n – 1
(D) 2^n

Answer: (C) 2^n – 1
Explanation: Tower of Hanoi with n disks needs 2^n − 1 moves.

Q26. The process of removing recursion involves replacing recursive function calls with:

(A) More recursive function calls
(B) Loops
(C) Additional memory allocation
(D) Non-recursive function calls

Answer: (B) Loops
Explanation: Recursion is removed by rewriting it as loops (iteration), often with an explicit stack.

Q27. A formal model of protection in an operating system provides:

(A) A mathematical framework for analyzing resource allocation
(B) Guidelines for designing user interfaces
(C) Methods for optimizing memory management
(D) Techniques for improving CPU utilization

Answer: (A) A mathematical framework for analyzing resource allocation
Explanation: A formal protection model (e.g. the access matrix) gives a mathematical framework for reasoning about access to resources.

Q28. In an operating system, a “buffer cache” is used to:

(A) Store files in memory
(B) Store copies of frequently used files in memory
(C) Store the operating system kernel
(D) Store input/output devices

Answer: (B) Store copies of frequently used files in memory
Explanation: A buffer cache keeps copies of recently or frequently used disk blocks in memory to reduce disk I/O.

Q29. File manipulation operations in an operating system include:

(A) Allocating memory to files
(B) Assigning file names to processes
(C) Loading files into CPU registers
(D) Reading, writing, and modifying file content

Answer: (D) Reading, writing, and modifying file content
Explanation: File manipulation means operations such as reading, writing and modifying file contents.

Q30. The I/O subsystem in an operating system is responsible for:

(A) Allocating memory for processes
(B) Managing the file system
(C) Managing input/output operations between processes and input/output devices
(D) Allocating CPU time to processes

Answer: (C) Managing input/output operations between processes and input/output devices
Explanation: The I/O subsystem manages input/output between processes and devices (buffering, caching, spooling, drivers).

Q31. The primary goal of load control is to:

(A) Prevent processes from running concurrently
(B) Avoid context switching between processes
(C) Ensure that CPU time is evenly distributed among processes
(D) Maximize the usage of virtual memory

Answer: (C) Ensure that CPU time is evenly distributed among processes
Explanation: Load control adjusts the degree of multiprogramming so that CPU time is used efficiently (and thrashing is avoided); C is the best option given.

Q32. The purpose of a page table in a paging system is to:

(A) Store pages of memory
(B) Manage input/output operations
(C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
(D) Store program instructions

Answer: (C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
Explanation: A page table maps virtual (logical) page numbers to physical frame numbers.

Q33. In multiprogramming with fixed partitions, if a process requires more memory than is available in a partition, it may lead to:

(A) Fragmentation
(B) Deadlock
(C) Priority inversion
(D) Starvation

Answer: (A) Fragmentation
Explanation: Fixed partitions cause fragmentation: memory is wasted because partition sizes rarely match process sizes.

Q34. What is DBMS?

(A) DBMS is a collection of queries
(B) ) DBMS is a high-level language
(C) DBMS is a programming language
(D) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data

Answer: (D) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
Explanation: A DBMS is software that stores, modifies and retrieves data.

Q35. Which of the following is correct according to the technology deployed by DBMS?

(A) Pointers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
(B) Cursors are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
(C) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
(D) Triggers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency

Answer: (C) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
Explanation: A DBMS uses locks for concurrency control, keeping transactions consistent.

Q36. The term “NTFS” refers to which one of the following?

(A) New Technology File System
(B) New Tree File System
(C) New Table type File System
(D) Both A and C

Answer: (A) New Technology File System
Explanation: NTFS = New Technology File System (Windows).

Q37. Which of the following is a top-down approach in which the entity’s higher level can be divided into two lower sub-entities?

(A) Aggregation
(B) Generalization
(C) Specialization
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C) Specialization
Explanation: Specialization is top-down: a higher-level entity is split into lower-level sub-entities. Generalization is bottom-up.

Q38. The term “DFD” stands for?

(A) Data file diagram
(B) Data flow document
(C) Data flow diagram
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Data flow diagram
Explanation: DFD = Data Flow Diagram.

Q39. The term “FAT” is stands for_____

(A) File Allocation Tree
(B) File Allocation Table
(C) File Allocation Graph
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B) File Allocation Table
Explanation: FAT = File Allocation Table.

Q40. The term “Data” refers to:

(A) The electronic representation of the information (or data)
(B) Basic information
(C) Raw facts and figures
(D) Both A and C

Answer: (C) Raw facts and figures
Explanation: Data means raw facts and figures; processed data becomes information.

Q41. What is the primary function of routing in the network layer?

(A) Data framing
(B) Error correction
(C) Finding the best path for data
(D) Flow control

Answer: (C) Finding the best path for data
Explanation: Routing in the network layer chooses the best path for packets from source to destination.

Q42. What is a socket in the context of process-to-process communication?

(A) A hardware device for data transmission
(B) A software interface for network communication
(C) A type of cable used for high-speed data transmission
(D) type of network topology

Answer: (B) A software interface for network communication
Explanation: A socket is a software endpoint (IP address + port) used for process-to-process communication.

Q43. Data transmission using multiple pathways simultaneously is known as:

(A) Parallel Transmission
(B) Serial Transmission
(C) Duplex Transmission
(D) Half-duplex Transmission

Answer: (A) Parallel Transmission
Explanation: Parallel transmission sends several bits at once over multiple lines.

Q44. Which of the following is NOT a network topology?

(A) Star
(B) Ring
(C) Disk
(D) Mesh

Answer: (C) Disk
Explanation: Star, ring and mesh are network topologies; ‘disk’ is not.

Q45. Contention-based MAC protocols are commonly used in:

(A) Ethernet networks
(B) Token Ring networks
(C) ATM networks
(D) Point-to-Point networks

Answer: (A) Ethernet networks
Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA/CD, a contention-based MAC protocol.

Q46. Routing involves:

(A) Dividing data into frames
(B) Managing flow control
(C) Determining the best path for data packets
(D) Correcting errors in data transmission

Answer: (C) Determining the best path for data packets
Explanation: Routing means determining the best path for data packets.

Q47. What is the purpose of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?

(A) To assign IP addresses to devices
(B) To resolve domain names to IP addresses
(C) To map MAC addresses to IP addresses
(D) To manage network congestion

Answer: (C) To map MAC addresses to IP addresses
Explanation: ARP finds the MAC (hardware) address that matches a known IP address; option C names this IP–MAC mapping.

Q48. Which software life cycle model allows for iterative development and incorporates risk analysis?

(A) Waterfall model
(B) Prototype model
(C) Spiral model
(D) Agile model

Answer: (C) Spiral model
Explanation: Boehm’s spiral model is iterative and does risk analysis in every loop.

Q49. What is the main goal of software quality assurance?

(A) To eliminate all defects from the software
(B) To ensure the software is defect-free before release
(C) To establish and enforce standards and processes to improve software quality
(D) To test software under different conditions

Answer: (C) To establish and enforce standards and processes to improve software quality
Explanation: SQA defines and enforces standards and processes so that quality is built into the product.

Q50. Reverse engineering is primarily used for:

(A) Creating new software from scratch
(B) Improving software performance
(C) Understanding and documenting existing software
(D) Testing software components

Answer: (C) Understanding and documenting existing software
Explanation: Reverse engineering analyses existing software to understand and document its design.

Q51. Which testing approach involves testing individual components or units of code?

(A) Integration Testing
(B) System Testing
(C) Unit Testing
(D) Acceptance Testing

Answer: (C) Unit Testing
Explanation: Unit testing tests individual components or functions in isolation.

Q52. What is the main goal of System Testing?

(A) Testing individual components in isolation
(B) Testing the integration between different software components
(C) Testing software functionality from the user’s perspective
(D) Identifying defects in the source code

Answer: (C) Testing software functionality from the user’s perspective
Explanation: System testing checks the complete, integrated system against requirements, as the end user would use it.

Q53. Which metric is used for estimating the size of a software project?

(A) Cyclomatic Complexity
(B) Function Points (FP)
(C) Defect Density
(D) Software Reliability Index

Answer: (B) Function Points (FP)
Explanation: Function Points (like LOC) estimate the size of a software project.

Q54. What is the purpose of staffing level estimation in software project management?

(A) To determine the number of hardware components required
(B) To identify potential risks in the project
(C) To allocate appropriate resources to the project
(D) To estimate the maintenance costs of the software

Answer: (C) To allocate appropriate resources to the project
Explanation: Staffing-level estimation (e.g. using the Putnam/Rayleigh curve) decides how many people are needed at each phase, i.e. how resources are allocated.

Q55. Which keyword is used to create an instance of a class in most programming languages?

(A) alloc
(B) new
(C) create
(D) instance

Answer: (B) new
Explanation: Most OOP languages (Java, C++, C#) create objects with the ‘new’ keyword.

Q56. What is an abstract class in OOP?

(A) A class with no methods
(B) A class that cannot be instantiated
(C) A class that can only have private members
(D) A class that cannot have methods with parameters

Answer: (B) A class that cannot be instantiated
Explanation: An abstract class cannot be instantiated; it must be subclassed.

Q57. What is the purpose of the “super” keyword in Java and other similar languages?

(A) It refers to the superclass in inheritance
(B) It creates a new object instance
(C) It defines a new class
(D) It handles exceptions

Answer: (A) It refers to the superclass in inheritance
Explanation: ‘super’ refers to the parent (superclass), for example to call its constructor or methods.

Q58. Which of the following best defines a class?

(A) An instance of an object
(B) A blueprint for creating objects
(C) A variable holding data
(D) A function with a return value

Answer: (B) A blueprint for creating objects
Explanation: A class is a blueprint (template) from which objects are created.

Q59. Which principle ensures that only essential information is visible to the outside world?

(A) Polymorphism
(B) Information hiding
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Abstraction

Answer: (D) Abstraction
Explanation: Abstraction shows only the essential features and hides the unnecessary details.

Q60. What is the main purpose of inheritance in OOP?

(A) To create instances of classes
(B) To prevent data abstraction
(C) To establish a parent-child relationship between classes
(D) To define exceptions

Answer: (C) To establish a parent-child relationship between classes
Explanation: Inheritance sets up a parent-child (is-a) relationship so that a child class reuses the parent’s code.

Q61. What are abstract methods?

(A) Methods that are inaccessible to the outside world
(B) Methods that have implementation details
(C) Methods without a body, defined in an abstract class
(D) Methods that cannot be inherited

Answer: (C) Methods without a body, defined in an abstract class
Explanation: Abstract methods are declared without a body and are implemented by subclasses.

Q62. Which protocol is commonly used for sending emails?

(A) HTTPS
(B) FTP
(C) SMTP
(D) TCP

Answer: (C) SMTP
Explanation: SMTP is used to send email.

Q63. What does CSS stand for?

(A) Cascading Style System
(B) Creative Styling Script
(C) Computer Style Sheets
(D) Cascading Style Sheets

Answer: (D) Cascading Style Sheets
Explanation: CSS = Cascading Style Sheets.

Q64. Which library simplifies JavaScript tasks like HTML document traversal and manipulation?

(A) JavaFX
(B) Bootstrap
(C) React
(D) jQuery

Answer: (D) jQuery
Explanation: jQuery simplifies DOM traversal, manipulation, events and AJAX.

Q65. What does AJAX stand for?

(A) Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
(B) Automated JavaScript and XHTML
(C) Advanced JavaScript and XML
(D) Asynchronous JSON and XHTML

Answer: (A) Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
Explanation: AJAX = Asynchronous JavaScript and XML.

Q66. How does the DOM tree structure reflect the hierarchy of HTML elements?

(A) In alphabetical order
(B) Based on the element’s size
(C) In a parent-child relationship
(D) According to the element’s color

Answer: (C) In a parent-child relationship
Explanation: The DOM is a tree in which nested elements are children of their enclosing (parent) elements.

Q67. In XML, which attribute is used to uniquely identify an element?

(A) id
(B) class
(C) name
(D) tag

Answer: (A) id
Explanation: The id attribute uniquely identifies an element.

Q68. The Kleene Star operation accepts which of the following strings of finite length over set A = {0, 1}, where string s contains an even number of 0s and 1s?

(A) 01, 0011,010101
(B) 0011, 11001100
(C) ε, 0011, 11001101
(D) ε, 0011, 11001100

Answer: (D) ε, 0011, 11001100
Explanation: ε (zero 0s and zero 1s), 0011 and 11001100 all contain an even number of 0s and of 1s.

Q69. A Language for which DFA exist is a________

(A) Regular Language
(B) Non-Regular Language
(C) Any language
(D) Cannot be said

Answer: (A) Regular Language
Explanation: A language accepted by some DFA is, by definition, regular.

Q70. Let u = ‘1101’, v = ‘0001’, then uv = 11010001 and vu = 00011101. Using the given information, what is the identity element for the string?

(A) u⁻¹
(B) v⁻¹
(C) u⁻¹v⁻¹
(D) ε

Answer: (D) ε
Explanation: The empty string ε is the identity for concatenation: εw = wε = w.

Q71. For a DFA accepting binary numbers whose decimal equivalent is divisible by 3, what are all the possible remainders?

(A) 0
(B) 0,2
(C) 0,1,2
(D) 0,1,2,3

Answer: (C) 0,1,2
Explanation: When a number is divided by 3, the possible remainders are 0, 1 and 2, so the DFA needs three states.

Q72. Minimum number of states required to accept strings that end with 101:

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) can’t be represented

Answer: (A) 3
Explanation: A minimal DFA for strings ending in 101 actually needs 4 states. None of the options is correct; 3 is the closest.

Q73. If NFA of 5 states excluding the initial state is converted into DFA, maximum possible number of states for the DFA is?

(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 128
(D) 187

Answer: (A) 64
Explanation: 6 NFA states (5 + initial) give at most 2^6 = 64 DFA states.

Q74. The class of CFG is not closed under

(A) Concatenation
(B) Intersection
(C) Union
(D) Repeated Concatenation.

Answer: (B) Intersection
Explanation: Context-free languages are closed under union, concatenation and Kleene star, but NOT under intersection.

Q75. Which among the following is not true about IoT?

(A) IoT uses Micro Controllers
(B) IoT is fully safe
(C) IoT uses Sensors and Actuators
(D) IoT uses wireless technology

Answer: (B) IoT is fully safe
Explanation: IoT is not fully safe; security is one of its biggest challenges.

Q76. About IoT, which among the following is not correct?

(A) Light sensor is analog
(B) microphone is a digital sensor
(C) Keyboard is a digital sensor
(D) Push button is a digital Sensor

Answer: (B) microphone is a digital sensor
Explanation: A microphone is an analog sensor, so calling it a digital sensor is incorrect.

Q77. BLE stands for

(A) Bluetooth large energy
(B) Bluetooth low energy
(C) Bluetooth light energy
(D) Bluetooth long energy

Answer: (B) Bluetooth low energy
Explanation: BLE = Bluetooth Low Energy.

Q78. WSN stands for?

(A) Wireless Standard Protocol
(B) Wireless Sensor Protocol
(C) Wireless Serial Protocol
(D) Wireless Single Protocol

Answer: (B) Wireless Sensor Protocol
Explanation: WSN stands for Wireless Sensor Network; of the options, ‘Wireless Sensor’ is the matching one.

Q79. A complex SCADA system has _______levels?

(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer: (D) 4
Explanation: SCADA is commonly described with four levels: field devices, RTU/PLC control, supervisory (SCADA server/HMI) and enterprise.

Q80. What is the role of the MISO pin in the RFID Module?

(A) Master In Slave Out
(B) Manage Internal Slave Output
(C) Master Internal Search Optimization
(D) Manage Input Slave Op

Answer: (A) Master In Slave Out
Explanation: MISO = Master In Slave Out, an SPI line.

Q81. Who is known as the father of AI?

(A) Fisher Ada
(B) Alan Turing
(C) John McCarthy
(D) Allen Newell

Answer: (C) John McCarthy
Explanation: John McCarthy coined the term ‘Artificial Intelligence’ (1956) and is called the father of AI.

Q82. Programming language commonly used for AI is___?

(A) Lisp
(B) Perl
(C) Prolog
(D) C++

Answer: (A) Lisp
Explanation: LISP (and Prolog) are the classic AI programming languages; Perl is not.

Q83. The algorithm used in the Game tree to make decisions of Win/Lose is ________________?

(A) Heuristic Search Algorithm
(B) DFS/ BFL algorithm
(C) Greedy Search algorithm
(D) Min/Max algorithm

Answer: (D) Min/Max algorithm
Explanation: Win/lose decisions in game trees are made with the Minimax algorithm.

Q84. Uniform-cost search expands the node n with the __________

(A) Lowest path cost
(B) Heuristic cost
(C) Highest path cost
(D) Average path cost

Answer: (A) Lowest path cost
Explanation: Uniform-cost search expands the node with the lowest path cost g(n).

Q85. The process of removing detail from a given state representation is called ______

(A) Extraction
(B) Abstraction
(C) Data Mining
(D) Information Retrieval

Answer: (B) Abstraction
Explanation: Removing details from a state representation is abstraction.

Q86. What does a first order predicate logic contain?

(A) Predicate and a subject
(B) Predicate and a Preposition
(C) Subject and an object
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Predicate and a subject
Explanation: In first-order logic a statement has a subject (term) and a predicate that describes it.

Q87. Which of the following can improve the performance of AI agent?

(A) Precision
(B) Learning
(C) Observing
(D) All of the above

Answer: (B) Learning
Explanation: Learning lets an agent improve its performance from experience.

Q88. Which of the following is part of the four main types for e-commerce?

(A) B2B
(B) B2C
(C) C2B
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: B2B, B2C, C2B (and C2C) are the main types of e-commerce.

Q89. What is the process in which a buyer posts its interest in buying a certain quantity of items, and sellers compete for the business by submitting successively lower bids until there is only one seller left?

(A) B2B Marketplace
(B) Auction
(C) Reverse Auction
(D) Intranet

Answer: (C) Reverse Auction
Explanation: In a reverse auction the buyer posts a need and sellers bid prices down.

Q90. If it is easy for competitors to enter the market, the threat of new entrants is considered:

(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Moderate
(D) Negligible

Answer: (B) High
Explanation: Low entry barriers mean a high threat of new entrants (Porter’s Five Forces).

Q91. Which of the following refers to creating products tailored to individual customers?

(A) Customization
(B) Adaptation
(C) Direct material
(D) Auction

Answer: (A) Customization
Explanation: Customization means tailoring a product to an individual customer.

Q92. Which form of e-marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from the same industry?

(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) integrated
(D) isolated

Answer: (B) Vertical
Explanation: A vertical e-marketplace serves buyers and sellers within one industry.

Q93. Which of the following is done by Secure Sockets Layers?

(A) creates a secure, private connection to a web server
(B) Encrypts information
(C) Sends information over the internet
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: SSL creates a secure connection, encrypts the data and sends it securely over the internet.

Q94. The delay that occur during the playback of a stream is called ___________

(A) Stream delay
(B) Playback delay
(C) Jitter
(D) Event delay

Answer: (C) Jitter
Explanation: Variation in delay during playback of a stream is called jitter.

Q95. In teardown state of real time streaming protocol is ___________

(A) the server resources for client
(B) server delivers the stream to client
(C) server suspends delivery of stream
(D) server breaks down the connection

Answer: (D) server breaks down the connection
Explanation: In RTSP, TEARDOWN ends the session and the server releases the connection.

Q96. In Real Time Interactive Audio Video, Jitter is introduced in real-time data by delay between____

(A) pixels
(B) layers
(C) frames
(D) packets

Answer: (D) packets
Explanation: Jitter is caused by variable delay between packets.

Q97. In Audio and Video Compression, voice is sampled at 8000 samples per second with_____________

(A) 8 bits per sample
(B) 5 bits per sample
(C) 7 bits per sample
(D) 6 bits per sample

Answer: (A) 8 bits per sample
Explanation: Telephone-quality voice is sampled 8000 times per second at 8 bits per sample (64 kbps).

Q98. Audio compression can be used for____________

(A) voice and data
(B) video and voice
(C) speech or music
(D) picture and colors

Answer: (C) speech or music
Explanation: Audio compression is used for speech or music.

Q99. Each ___ represents a particular colour.

(A) Frame
(B) Character
(C) Pixel value
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Pixel value
Explanation: Each pixel value represents a particular colour.

Q100. ___________ is basically a form of pictorial presentation.

(A) Photography
(B) Animations
(C) Drawing
(D) Creativity

Answer: (B) Animations
Explanation: Animation is a form of pictorial presentation (a sequence of images).

Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)

Q101. The main aim of classroom teaching is

(A) to give information
(B) help to pass examination
(C) syllabus coverage
(D) to develop personality

Answer: (D) to develop personality
Explanation: The main aim of classroom teaching is the all-round development of the learner’s personality.

Q102. To ensure participation of students we use

(A) demonstration
(B) little man’s lecture
(C) discussion
(D) illustration

Answer: (C) discussion
Explanation: Discussion involves students actively.

Q103. learning through independent effort is

(A) autonomous learning
(B) autocratic learning
(C) democratic learning
(D) all the above

Answer: (A) autonomous learning
Explanation: Learning through one’s own independent effort is autonomous learning.

Q104. Aims

(A) may include abstract concepts
(B) difficult to measure
(C) may include appreciation
(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation: Aims are broad and abstract, hard to measure directly, and may include appreciation.

Q105. psychomotor domain relates to

(A) map making
(B) project making
(C) playing
(D) all the above

Answer: (D) all the above
Explanation: The psychomotor domain covers physical and skill-based activities such as map-making, project-making and play.

Q106. Heuristic means

(A) to investigate
(B) to show
(C) to do
(D) to act

Answer: (A) to investigate
Explanation: ‘Heuristic’ (from Greek heuriskein) means to find out or investigate.

Q107. Armstrong gifted teaching with

(A) Project method
(B) heuristic method
(C) team teaching
(D) blended method

Answer: (B) heuristic method
Explanation: H.E. Armstrong introduced the heuristic method of teaching science.

Q108. Set induction relates to

(A) previous knowledge
(B) new knowledge
(C) specific objectives
(D) statement of aim

Answer: (A) previous knowledge
Explanation: Set induction prepares students for the lesson by linking it to what they already know.

Q109. Didactic teaching materials were introduced by

(A) Pestalozzi
(B) Froebel
(C) Montessori
(D) Dewey

Answer: (C) Montessori
Explanation: Maria Montessori introduced didactic apparatus (self-correcting teaching materials).

Q110. The centre point of a lesson plan is

(A) principal
(B) teacher
(C) student
(D) none of the above

Answer: (C) student
Explanation: A lesson plan is centred on the student and their learning.

Q111. According to Howard Gardner, a philosopher has …………. Type of intelligence and a sculptor has more ………… type of intelligence.

(A) interpersonal; linguistic
(B) linguistic; interpersonal
(C) spatial; intrapersonal
(D) intrapersonal; spatial

Answer: (D) intrapersonal; spatial
Explanation: A philosopher relies on intrapersonal (self-reflective) intelligence; a sculptor on spatial intelligence.

Q112. Which of the following is an example of an internal attribution for failure?

(A) I failed the test because my friends were distracting me.
(B) I received a low grade because the teacher is a tough grader.
(C) I failed the test because I didn’t study enough.
(D) I didn’t get good marks because the teacher was biased.

Answer: (C) I failed the test because I didn’t study enough.
Explanation: Blaming one’s own lack of study is an internal attribution; the other options blame external factors.

Q113. Which of the following is an example of a question that requires students to reflect on their own thinking?

(A) how has your thinking about the use of verbs changed since the beginning of the class ?
(B) what is the relationship between nouns and verbs in a sentence?
(C) what is the definition of a verb?
(D) how do you change a verb to the present tense?

Answer: (A) how has your thinking about the use of verbs changed since the beginning of the class ?
Explanation: Asking how one’s thinking has changed is metacognitive reflection.

Q114. Micro teaching is more effective

(A) always
(B) after the teaching-practice
(C) during the teaching-practice
(D) during the preparation for teaching-practice

Answer: (D) during the preparation for teaching-practice
Explanation: Micro-teaching is used in the preparation phase before teaching practice to build specific skills.

Q115. Which of the following are the characteristics of a person with scientific attitude?

(A) Brevity
(B) Objectivity
(C) Adventure
(D) Sharp memory

Answer: (B) Objectivity
Explanation: Objectivity is a key feature of a scientific attitude.

Q116. A librarian provides

(A) Physical material
(B) Digital material
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Both A & B
Explanation: A librarian provides both physical and digital materials.

Q117. Which of the following components are essential for library?

(A) Learning
(B) Walking
(C) Playing
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Learning
Explanation: A library exists to support learning.

Q118. A teacher should ask-

(A) meaningful question
(B) maximum number of question in a fixed time
(C) as many question as possible
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) meaningful question
Explanation: A teacher should ask meaningful, purposeful questions rather than simply many questions.

Q119. Which of the following important cause of failure for teacher?

(A) interpersonal relationship
(B) verbal ability
(C) lack of command over the knowledge of subject
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) lack of command over the knowledge of subject
Explanation: A teacher’s lack of command over the subject is a major cause of failure.

Q120. Teacher should master during his teaching period

(A) one of the teaching methods
(B) equally across all teaching methods
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) equally across all teaching methods
Explanation: The official key’s option is that a teacher should master all teaching methods equally, so the method can suit the situation.

Q121. Knowledge is-

(A) Information
(B) Application
(C) Analysis
(D) Understanding

Answer: (A) Information
Explanation: At the lowest level of Bloom’s taxonomy, knowledge means recalling information.

Q122. Formative evaluation is conducted

(A) After the teaching learning process
(B) Before the teaching learning process
(C) During the teaching learning process
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C) During the teaching learning process
Explanation: Formative evaluation takes place during teaching-learning to give feedback.

Q123. Which technique is used for evaluation of interest?

(A) Observation technique
(B) Check list
(C) Rating scale
(D) Projective Technique

Answer: (C) Rating scale
Explanation: Interests are commonly measured with rating scales and interest inventories.

Q124. Which of the following is not a type of curriculum design?

(A) Subject-centered
(B) Problem Centered
(C) Learner-Centered
(D) Teacher-Centered

Answer: (D) Teacher-Centered
Explanation: The main curriculum designs are subject-centred, learner-centred and problem-centred; ‘teacher-centred’ is not a standard design.

Q125. Which of the following is not the nature of curriculum?

(A) Critical
(B) Creative
(C) Conservative
(D) Active

Answer: (D) Active
Explanation: The official key gives ‘Active’ as the option that does not describe the nature of curriculum.

Q126. The biggest challenge before democracy is –

(A) Fundamentalism
(B) Castism
(C) Regionalism
(D) All the above

Answer: (A) Fundamentalism
Explanation: The official key gives fundamentalism as democracy’s biggest challenge (casteism and regionalism are also challenges).

Q127. A teacher should behave with all the students as –

(A) as a friend
(B) as a master
(C) equally
(D) personally

Answer: (A) as a friend
Explanation: A teacher should behave as a friend and guide to students.

Q128. Failure can be our best teacher if-

(A) we work harder than before
(B) we know the reasons of failure
(C) we know the reasons of failure and then being encouraged we work harder than before
(D) none of the above

Answer: (C) we know the reasons of failure and then being encouraged we work harder than before
Explanation: Failure teaches us when we understand its causes and then work harder with encouragement.

Q129. Chalkboard is a kind of teaching aid –

(A) Visual
(B) Audio
(C) Audio-Visual
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A) Visual
Explanation: A chalkboard is a visual aid.

Q130. Television is

(A) Visual aid
(B) Audio-visual aid
(C) Audio aid
(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Audio-visual aid
Explanation: Television gives both sound and pictures, so it is an audio-visual aid.

General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)

Q131. There were widespread rises against the British in the 1820s. Which one of the following did not revolt in the 1820s?

(A) Santhals
(B) Ahoms
(C) Pagal Panthis
(D) Ramosi

Answer: (A) Santhals
Explanation: The Ahoms, Pagal Panthis and Ramosis rose in the 1820s; the Santhal rebellion came in 1855–56.

Q132. If the Sun rises at Tirap in Arunachal Pradesh at 5.00 am (IST), then when (IST) the Sun will rise in Kandla, Gujarat?

(A) About 5.00 a.m.
(B) About 6.20 a.m.
(C) About 7.30 a.m.
(D) About 7.00 a.m.

Answer: (D) About 7.00 a.m.
Explanation: Tirap (~96°E) and Kandla (~70°E) are about 26° apart, i.e. 26 × 4 ≈ 104 minutes, so sunrise is around 6:45 am. About 7:00 am is the nearest option.

Q133. What is the maximum investment by any single investor in an Indian company?

(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%

Answer: (A) 10%
Explanation: The official key gives 10%, the cap for a single foreign portfolio investor in an Indian company.

Q134. Who among the following was not related to Champaran Satyagraha?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Anugrah Narayan Singh
(C) JB Kriplani
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan

Answer: (D) Jai Prakash Narayan
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha and J.B. Kripalani worked with Gandhi in Champaran (1917); Jayaprakash Narayan did not.

Q135. Visva-Bharati University, which was seen in the news recently, is located in which state?

(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) Odisha

Answer: (C) West Bengal
Explanation: Visva-Bharati is at Santiniketan, West Bengal.

Q136. Rama plays cricket with his friends every evening. Which energy does he use to play cricket?

(A) Sound energy
(B) Light energy
(C) Chemical energy
(D) Muscular energy

Answer: (D) Muscular energy
Explanation: Playing cricket uses the muscular energy of the body.

Q137. Which one of the following is ‘sticky rice’ and is a common variety of rice in Assam?

(A) Ponni rice
(B) Bora rice
(C) Arborio rice
(D) Bomba rice

Answer: (B) Bora rice
Explanation: Bora (bora saul) is Assam’s glutinous ‘sticky’ rice.

Q138. When we burn fuels, we get :

(A) Light and sound energy
(B) Only light energy
(C) Heat and light energy
(D) Mechanical and Light energy

Answer: (C) Heat and light energy
Explanation: Burning fuel releases heat and light energy.

Q139. Consider the following statements about snakes and identify the Incorrect one from the following:

(A) They chew up their prey
(B) They swallow their food whole
(C) Snakes have sharp teeth
(D) Poisonous snakes have fangs.

Answer: (A) They chew up their prey
Explanation: Snakes swallow prey whole; they do not chew it.

Q140. With respect to Gujarat, the locations of Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh, respectively, are:

(A) North-West; South-East
(B) North-West; South-West
(C) North-East; South-West
(D) North-East; South-East

Answer: (D) North-East; South-East
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh is north-east of Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh is south-east of it.

Q141. Which one of the following groups have all 3-dimensional shapes?

(A) Cube, Cuboid, Sphere, Cylinder
(B) Cube, Cuboid, Semi-Circle, Cone
(C) Cube, Cuboid, Circle, Cone
(D) Cube, Cuboid, Circle, Triangle

Answer: (A) Cube, Cuboid, Sphere, Cylinder
Explanation: Cube, cuboid, sphere and cylinder are all 3-D; circles, semicircles and triangles are 2-D.

Q142. What is the missing number in the pattern given below? 1, 6, 15, ___, 45, 66, 91

(A) 25
(B) 36
(C) 28
(D) 32

Answer: (C) 28
Explanation: The differences are 5, 9, 13, 17, 21, 25 (increasing by 4), so 15 + 13 = 28.

Q143. A whole number is added to 100 and the same number is subtracted from 100. the sum of the two resulting numbers so obtained is :

(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 0
(D) 50

Answer: (B) 200
Explanation: (100 + x) + (100 − x) = 200.

Q144. The sum of 5 – 5 + 5 – 5 + 5 – 5 …………… , to odd number of terms is :

(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 0
(D) -5

Answer: (A) 5
Explanation: The terms cancel in pairs, leaving one +5 when the number of terms is odd.

Q145. Which of the following arrangements represents a descending order of numbers?

(A) 10.5, 1.50, 1.05, 1.055, 1.005, 0.155
(B) 10.5, 1.50, 1.055, 1.05, 1.005, 0.155
(C) 1.05, 1.005, 1.50, 1.055, 10.5, 0.155
(D) 10.5, 1.05, 1.055, 1.50, 1.005, 0.155

Answer: (B) 10.5, 1.50, 1.055, 1.05, 1.005, 0.155
Explanation: 10.5 > 1.50 > 1.055 > 1.05 > 1.005 > 0.155.

Q146. Monday : April : : Friday : ?

(A) July
(B) Saturday
(C) August
(D) Tuesday

Answer: (C) August
Explanation: Monday is the 2nd day and April the 4th month (+2); Friday is the 6th day, and the 8th month is August.

Q147. Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

(A) Kidney
(B) Heart
(C) Lung
(D) Ear

Answer: (B) Heart
Explanation: Kidneys, lungs and ears come in pairs; the heart is a single organ.

Q148. Find the next term: 60, 30, 120, 15, 240, ?

(A) 30
(B) 120
(C) 140
(D) 7½

Answer: (D) 7½
Explanation: Alternate terms: 60, 120, 240 (×2) and 30, 15, 7½ (÷2), so the next is 7½.

Q149. In a certain code, if BAD is written as YZW and SAID is written as HZRW, then LIFE will be written as:

(A) ORUV
(B) OSUV
(C) OQVU
(D) ORVW

Answer: (A) ORUV
Explanation: Each letter is replaced by its opposite (A↔Z, B↔Y…): L→O, I→R, F→U, E→V, giving ORUV.

Q150. Pointing towards Sita, Nikhil said, “I am the only son of her mother’s son”. How is Sita related to Nikhil?

(A) Aunt
(B) Niece
(C) Mother
(D) Cousin

Answer: (A) Aunt
Explanation: Sita’s mother’s son is Sita’s brother; Nikhil is his son, so Sita is Nikhil’s aunt (bua).

More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers

• All Bihar STET Computer Science Previous Year Papers (2019–2025)
• Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 3 November 2025 (Shift 1)
• Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 3 November 2025 (Shift 2)
• Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 4 November 2025 (Shift 2)
• Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 7 November 2025 (Shift 1)
• Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 2020 Re-Exam (Set B)
• Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 2019 (Set A)
• Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 2019 (Set H)
• BPSC Previous Year Questions with Explanations

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