BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies Question Paper (Class 1–5, 20 July 2024) with Official Answers
BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies question paper (Class 1–5, 20 July 2024): all 120 GS questions in English with BPSC’s official final answers and a short explanation for each.
Class 1–5 had a single paper, ‘Language and General Studies’, so every Class 1–5 candidate answered these same questions. The General Studies part here is much longer than at other class levels: 120 questions (Q31–150), covering maths, reasoning, science, history, geography, polity and current affairs.
BPSC TRE 4.0 is now open for 33,320 teacher posts, including 3,847 for Class 1–5. General Studies counts towards your merit whatever your subject, so it’s a good place to start practising.
Table of Contents
- Exam overview
- BPSC TRE 4.0 at a glance
- GS questions with answers (Q31–150)
- How to prepare for GS
- FAQs
BPSC TRE 3.0 Class 1–5: Exam Overview
| Exam | BPSC School Teacher (Re-)Examination, TRE 3.0 (Advt. No. 22/2024) |
| Conducting body | Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) |
| Class level | Class 1–5 |
| Exam date | 20 July 2024 |
| General Studies | 120 questions (Q31–150) |
| Options | Five per question; (D) is usually ‘More than one of the above’ and (E) ‘None of the above’ |
| Answers on this page | BPSC Final Answer Key (15 September 2024), booklet Series E |
| Deleted by BPSC | Q56 |
BPSC TRE 4.0 at a Glance
| Advertisement | No. 15/2026 (replaces Advt. 14/2026) |
| Total posts | 33,320 |
| Class 1–5 posts | 3,847 |
| Last date to apply | 3 November 2026 (fee by 2 November) |
| Exam date | Not announced yet |
BPSC TRE 3.0 GS Questions with Answers (Q31–150)
Question numbers are as in the original booklet (Series E). Answers follow BPSC’s final answer key; the explanations are written by the ExamYaari team.
Q31. What are the last signs of the activities of a volcano?
(A) Geysers
(B) Craters
(C) Famaroles
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Famaroles
Explanation: Fumaroles are vents that only give out steam and gases; they are seen when a volcano is dying down, so they are taken as the last sign of volcanic activity.
Q32. The electric fuse works on the
(A) Chemical effect of current
(B) Magnetic effect of current
(C) Heating effect of current
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Heating effect of current
Explanation: Too much current heats the thin fuse wire until it melts and breaks the circuit, so a fuse works on the heating effect of current.
Q33. Who was the militant peasant leader of Bihar?
(A) Raj Kumar Shukla
(B) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
Explanation: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929) and led radical peasant movements against zamindari.
Q34. By selling 39 dozens of mangoes, a vendor earns a profit equal to the sale proceeds of 13 dozens of mangoes. What is the percentage of his profit?
(A) 33%
(B) 50%
(C) 26%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 50%
Explanation: SP of 39 dozen − CP of 39 dozen = SP of 13 dozen, so CP of 39 dozen = SP of 26 dozen. Profit % = 13/26 × 100 = 50%.
Q35. Who resisted the new system of taxation against the exploitative forces?
(A) Tribes of Khandesh in 1856
(B) Santhals of Bihar in 1855-56
(C) Tribes of Chotanagpur in 1850
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Santhals of Bihar in 1855-56
Explanation: The Santhal Hul of 1855–56, led by Sidhu and Kanhu, was a revolt against the new land-revenue system, moneylenders and zamindars.
Q36. Which of the following is warm blooded animal?
(A) Toad
(B) Crocodile
(C) Fish
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Toads (amphibians), crocodiles (reptiles) and fish are all cold-blooded. Only birds and mammals are warm-blooded, so the answer is (E).
Q37. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s novel, ‘Anandmath’ was published in
(A) 1881
(B) 1882
(C) 1880
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 1882
Explanation: Anandamath was published as a book in 1882; it contains the song ‘Vande Mataram’.
Q38. Dry ice is
(A) Solid nitrogen
(B) Solid oxygen
(C) Solid carbon dioxide
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Solid carbon dioxide
Explanation: Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide; it turns directly into gas (sublimes) at about −78 °C.
Q39. In National Park protection is given to
(A) Only Fauna
(B) The whole ecosystem
(C) Only Flora
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) The whole ecosystem
Explanation: A national park protects the entire ecosystem: plants, animals and their habitat together.
Q40. Which film received the most awards in the Golden Globes 2024 held in Los Angeles?
(A) The Flower Moon
(B) The Holdovers
(C) Oppenheimer
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Oppenheimer
Explanation: Oppenheimer won five awards at the 81st Golden Globes (January 2024), the most of any film, including Best Motion Picture – Drama.
Q41. Some facts about Ozone (O₃) are
(A) It absorbs high wavelength radiation
(B) It is most stable gas of the atmosphere
(C) It is found in mesosphere
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Ozone absorbs short-wavelength ultraviolet radiation, is a reactive (unstable) gas and is concentrated in the stratosphere, not the mesosphere. All three statements are wrong, so the answer is (E).
Q42. Which is the major component of biogas?
(A) Hydrogen sulphide
(B) Methane
(C) Hydrogen
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Methane
Explanation: Biogas is mostly methane (about 50–75%), with carbon dioxide and small amounts of other gases.
Q43. The Indian Standard Time (IST) remains how much ahead from Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)?
(A) 05½ hours
(B) 06 hours
(C) 05 hours
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 05½ hours
Explanation: IST is based on 82°30′ E longitude; 82.5° × 4 minutes = 330 minutes, i.e. 5½ hours ahead of GMT.
Q44. In which forest do the majority of species of birds inhabit the mountainous areas?
(A) Pine forest
(B) Bush forest
(C) Oak forest
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Pine forest
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (A) Pine forest.
Q45. Earth day is celebrated on every 22nd April related with
(A) End of the Second World War day
(B) Declaration of no use of nuclear weapons on earth planet
(C) Public awareness about environment issues
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Public awareness about environment issues
Explanation: Earth Day, first held in 1970, is observed on 22 April to raise public awareness about environmental protection.
Q46. Which one of the following earthquakes is very severe and disastrous?
(A) Volcanic earthquake
(B) Tectonic earthquake
(C) Plutonic earthquake
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Tectonic earthquake
Explanation: Tectonic earthquakes, caused by movement of plates along faults, release the most energy and are the most destructive.
Q47. At the time of the First Round Table Conference, the Governor-General of India was
(A) Lord Reading
(B) Lord Linlithgow
(C) Lord Irwin
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Lord Irwin
Explanation: The First Round Table Conference was held in London from November 1930 to January 1931, when Lord Irwin (1926–31) was Viceroy and Governor-General.
Q48. Find the smallest number of five digits which when divided by 15, 30, 38, 40 respectively always leaves 2 as remainder.
(A) 11398
(B) 11402
(C) 2282
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 11402
Explanation: LCM of 15, 30, 38, 40 = 2280. The smallest five-digit multiple is 2280 × 5 = 11400; adding the remainder 2 gives 11402.
Q49. The Silent Valley is located in the State of
(A) Kerala
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Kerala
Explanation: Silent Valley National Park is in the Palakkad district of Kerala, in the Nilgiri hills.
Q50. Pollutants responsible for acid rains are
(A) CO₂
(B) Water vapours
(C) SO₂
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: SO₂ (with NOₓ) is the main cause of acid rain, and CO₂ also dissolves in rain to form weak carbonic acid. BPSC’s key remark says CO₂ and SO₂ both may be considered responsible, so the answer is (D).
Q51. What is true for phylum echinodermata?
(A) They are triploblastic and have coelomic cavity.
(B) They have a peculiar water driven tube system.
(C) They are exclusively free living marine animals.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Echinoderms (starfish, sea urchins) are triploblastic and coelomate, have a water vascular system with tube feet, and are all free-living marine animals. More than one statement is true.
Q52. Which of the following is the source of renewable energy?
(A) Coal
(B) Nuclear fuel
(C) Petroleum
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Coal, nuclear fuel and petroleum are all non-renewable. Renewable sources include solar, wind and hydro power, so the answer is (E).
Q53. Who among the following was the Members of the State Re-organisation Commission (SRC) in 1953?
(A) K. M. Panikkar
(B) Hriday Nath Kunzru
(C) Fazal Ali
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The States Reorganisation Commission set up in 1953 had Fazal Ali as chairman and K. M. Panikkar and H. N. Kunzru as members, so all three were on it.
Q54. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
(A) Thyroid
(B) Pituitary
(C) Lacrimal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Lacrimal
Explanation: The lacrimal (tear) gland pours its secretion through ducts, so it is an exocrine gland. Thyroid and pituitary are endocrine glands.
Q55. Choose the odd one from the following.
(A) Mumbai
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Kolkata
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Saharanpur
Explanation: Mumbai and Kolkata are coastal port cities and state capitals; Saharanpur is an inland city, so it is the odd one out.
Q56. N is the brother of M. K is sister of M. P is the brother of O and O is daughter of N. Who is the uncle of P?
(A) M
(B) K
(C) N
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: Question deleted (BPSC removed it in the final answer key)
Explanation: This question was deleted by BPSC. Its key remark says the sex of M is not given, so the relationship cannot be determined.
Q57. Which of the following facts are mentioned in the decision of the Supreme Court regarding Bilkis Bano? 1. Bilkis Bano challenges premature release of convicts in Supreme Court on 30 November 2022. 2. On 23 April 2019, the Supreme Court granted compensation of Rs. 50 lakh to Bilkis Bano from the Gujarat Government. 3. On 8 January 2024, the Supreme Court canceled the order regarding premature release of 11 convicts. 4. Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Ujjal Bhuiyan gave the decision.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: All four facts appear in the 8 January 2024 judgment by Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan, which quashed the remission of the 11 convicts. More than one statement is correct.
Q58. INSAT-3DS launched from Sriharikota on 18 February 2024 will be used
(A) For telecommunication
(B) For information about military activities of neighboring countries
(C) In the field of meteorology
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) In the field of meteorology
Explanation: INSAT-3DS, launched on GSLV-F14, is a meteorological satellite for weather forecasting and disaster warning.
Q59. The polling of by-elections in some Constituencies was cancelled in 2016, in which of the following States of India?
(A) Telangana
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: In 2016 the Election Commission cancelled polling in the Aravakurichi and Thanjavur constituencies of Tamil Nadu because of large-scale distribution of cash to voters.
Q60. The distance between the Earth and the Sun is greater during
(A) Aphelion
(B) Perihelion
(C) Summer solstice
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Aphelion
Explanation: At aphelion (around 4 July) the Earth is farthest from the Sun, about 152 million km; at perihelion (around 3 January) it is nearest.
Q61. The major and top source of oxygen in the atmosphere is
(A) Photosynthesis by forest plants
(B) Photosynthesis by oceanic plants
(C) Photosynthesis by grassland ecosystem
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Photosynthesis by oceanic plants
Explanation: Ocean phytoplankton and algae produce roughly half or more of the Earth’s oxygen, making them the largest single source.
Q62. The value of 18/(5 + √7) + 4/(√7 + √3) + 1/(√3 + √2) + 1/(√2 + 1) is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 4
Explanation: Rationalising: 18/(5 + √7) = 5 − √7, 4/(√7 + √3) = √7 − √3, 1/(√3 + √2) = √3 − √2, 1/(√2 + 1) = √2 − 1. The sum telescopes to 5 − 1 = 4.
Q63. Who assassinated Sir Curzon-Wylie in London?
(A) V.D. Savarkar
(B) Udham Singh
(C) Madan Lal Dhingra
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Madan Lal Dhingra
Explanation: Madan Lal Dhingra shot Sir William Curzon Wyllie in London on 1 July 1909 and was hanged later that year. Udham Singh killed Michael O’Dwyer in 1940.
Q64. The ‘Operation Barga’ gained sustainable support to which of the following State Government of India, in the country?
(A) The State Government in West Bengal
(B) The State Government in Kerala
(C) The State Government in Assam
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) The State Government in West Bengal
Explanation: Operation Barga (1978) was the Left Front government’s drive in West Bengal to record sharecroppers (bargadars) and secure their rights; it built lasting rural support for that government.
Q65. Which one of the following is a plant hormone?
(A) Cytokinin
(B) Insulin
(C) Oestrogen
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Cytokinin
Explanation: Cytokinin is a plant hormone that promotes cell division. Insulin and oestrogen are animal hormones.
Q66. How many rectangles are there in the figure given below? [Figure: a rectangle divided by one horizontal line through the middle and one vertical line near its left end, with a triangle attached to its left side.]
(A) 9
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 9
Explanation: The rectangular part has 3 vertical lines and 3 horizontal lines, so it has C(3,2) × C(3,2) = 3 × 3 = 9 rectangles.
Q67. Atmosphere receives most of its energy from
(A) Long wave terrestrial radiation
(B) Short wave terrestrial radiation
(C) Sun
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Long wave terrestrial radiation
Explanation: The atmosphere lets most short-wave sunlight pass through; the Earth’s surface absorbs it and re-radiates long-wave (infrared) terrestrial radiation, which heats the atmosphere from below.
Q68. Which one among the following represents the meaningful sequence of the words given below? 1. Interview 2. Appointment 3. Selection 4. Advertisement 5. Application
(A) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
(B) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
(C) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
Explanation: First the Advertisement (4), then Application (5), Interview (1), Selection (3) and finally Appointment (2): 4, 5, 1, 3, 2.
Q69. Which of the following is known as the longest canal in India?
(A) Setu Samudram Shipping Canal
(B) Sharda Canal
(C) Indira Gandhi Canal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Indira Gandhi Canal
Explanation: The Indira Gandhi Canal, which starts from the Harike Barrage in Punjab and runs into the Thar desert of Rajasthan, is the longest canal in India.
Q70. A clock is started at 12:00 noon. By 10 minutes past 05:00, the hour hand has turned through
(A) 145°
(B) 155°
(C) 135°
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 155°
Explanation: The hour hand turns 0.5° per minute. From 12:00 to 5:10 is 310 minutes, so it turns 310 × 0.5° = 155°.
Q71. Mohan walked 20 meter towards North, then turned left and walked 10 meter. Again he turned right and walked 20 meter. From here he turned again right and walked 10 meter. How far is he now from his starting point?
(A) 30 meter
(B) 40 meter
(C) 20 meter
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 40 meter
Explanation: He goes 20 m north, 10 m west, 20 m north, then 10 m east. The east–west moves cancel, leaving him 20 + 20 = 40 m north of the start.
Q72. Which one of the following National Parks is not correctly matched?
(A) Guindy – Tamil Nadu
(B) Bhagwan Mahavir – Bihar
(C) Balpakram – Meghalaya
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Bhagwan Mahavir – Bihar
Explanation: Bhagwan Mahavir National Park is in Goa, not Bihar. Guindy (Chennai, Tamil Nadu) and Balpakram (Meghalaya) are correctly matched.
Q73. Which number will come at missing value (X) from the numbers given in options on a logical way in the figure given below? [Grid, row by row: 4, 3, 9, 12 | 6, 5, 15, 50 | 2, 3, 75, X]
(A) 48
(B) 32
(C) 50
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 50
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, X = 50 (C). The booklet does not state the rule, and no single simple pattern fits all three rows cleanly.
Q74. The reversal of partition of Bengal was carried out during the time of
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Lord Hardinge
Explanation: The partition of Bengal (1905, under Curzon) was annulled in 1911, announced at the Delhi Durbar, during the tenure of Lord Hardinge.
Q75. The sonar technique is used to determine
(A) To locate under water hills
(B) To locate ice-bergs
(C) The depth of the sea
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: SONAR sends sound pulses through water and times their echoes, so it can find sea depth, underwater hills and icebergs. More than one option is correct.
Q76. In a food chain, insectivorous plants trophic level is
(A) Primary consumer
(B) Secondary consumer
(C) Producer
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Producer
Explanation: Insectivorous plants such as the pitcher plant are green and make their own food by photosynthesis; they eat insects only for extra nitrogen. So they are placed at the producer level.
Q77. As ‘Accident’ is related to ‘Precaution’, in the same way ‘Illness’ is related to which one of the following?
(A) Doctor
(B) Cleanliness
(C) Pollution
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Cleanliness
Explanation: Precaution prevents accidents; in the same way, cleanliness prevents illness.
Q78. A number is decreased by 5% and then increased by 10%. What is the percent increase or decrease of the number thus obtained from the original number?
(A) 4% increase
(B) 4.5% decrease
(C) 4.5% increase
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 4.5% increase
Explanation: 0.95 × 1.10 = 1.045, so the number increases by 4.5%.
Q79. The Congress Socialist Party was formed in
(A) June 1934
(B) July 1934
(C) May 1934
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (E). The Congress Socialist Party was formally founded at its first conference in Bombay in October 1934 (after a preparatory meeting at Patna in May 1934).
Q80. In a class of 50 students serial number of Avirat is 25th. What will be his serial number from the last?
(A) 26th
(B) 27th
(C) 25th
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 26th
Explanation: Position from the end = 50 − 25 + 1 = 26th.
Q81. Which of the following is the record of suspension of MPs in the new Parliament House of India?
(A) 16 MPs of DMK were suspended
(B) 13 MPs of TMC were suspended
(C) 41 MPs of Congress were suspended
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: In the December 2023 Winter Session, a record 146 opposition MPs from both Houses were suspended. None of the given figures is the record, so the answer is (E).
Q82. Who was the ‘political guru’ of Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Pherozeshah Mehta
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Explanation: Gandhi called Gopal Krishna Gokhale his political guru.
Q83. Mulching of the soil is associated with
(A) Reducing weed growth
(B) Improving fertility and health of soil
(C) Conservation of soil moisture
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: A mulch layer on the soil keeps in moisture, blocks weeds, and (when organic) adds nutrients and improves soil health. More than one option is correct.
Q84. It is given that √4489 = 67, what is the value of √44.89 + √0.4489 + √0.004489 + √0.00004489?
(A) 74.437
(B) 744.37
(C) 7.4437
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 7.4437
Explanation: The roots are 6.7, 0.67, 0.067 and 0.0067; their sum is 7.4437.
Q85. The Voter Verified Paper Audit Trial (VVPAT) came into existence in which of the following years in the country?
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2012
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 2013
Explanation: VVPAT was first used in September 2013 in the Noksen assembly by-election in Nagaland.
Q86. Who among the following had been the first unopposed and unanimously elected President in India?
(A) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(B) Dr. Radha Krishnan
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
Explanation: In 1977 Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only valid candidate and was declared elected unopposed; he is the only President elected this way.
Q87. The change in focal length of human eye is caused due to
(A) Pupil
(B) Cornea
(C) Ciliary muscles
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Ciliary muscles
Explanation: The ciliary muscles change the curvature of the eye lens, which changes its focal length (accommodation).
Q88. Which one word among the following words can not be formed with the letters of the word ‘CARPENTER’?
(A) PAINTER
(B) CARPET
(C) REPENT
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) PAINTER
Explanation: CARPENTER has no letter I, so PAINTER cannot be formed. CARPET and REPENT can be formed.
Q89. The banks of which river is planned to be developed as West Bengal Government Tea Park?
(A) Hooghly
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Ganga
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Hooghly
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (A) Hooghly.
Q90. Follow that rule to choose the set in options which has been followed in the set (6, 18, 54).
(A) (15, 45, 135)
(B) (20, 30, 40)
(C) (12, 24, 72)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) (15, 45, 135)
Explanation: In (6, 18, 54) each number is 3 times the previous one. Only (15, 45, 135) follows the same rule.
Q91. At what rate of simple interest, a certain sum of money becomes its seven times in 24 years?
(A) 24% per annum
(B) 25% per annum
(C) 22% per annum
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 25% per annum
Explanation: Interest = 7P − P = 6P. So 6P = P × r × 24/100, giving r = 600/24 = 25% per annum.
Q92. If day before yesterday it was Monday, then which will be the day on day after tomorrow?
(A) Friday
(B) Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Friday
Explanation: Day before yesterday was Monday, so today is Wednesday and the day after tomorrow is Friday.
Q93. Which one of the following sequences of the Himalayan ranges from south to north is correct?
(A) Ladakh – Zaskar – Pir Panjal – Karakoram
(B) Pir Panjal – Zaskar – Ladakh – Karakoram
(C) Karakoram – Ladakh – Zaskar – Pir Panjal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Pir Panjal – Zaskar – Ladakh – Karakoram
Explanation: Going north from the plains: Pir Panjal (Lesser Himalaya), then Zaskar, then Ladakh, and the Karakoram furthest north.
Q94. Tungsten is used in which of the following?
(A) Metal extraction
(B) Electric bulb
(C) Insulator
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Electric bulb
Explanation: Tungsten has a very high melting point (about 3422 °C), so it is used for the filament of incandescent electric bulbs.
Q95. 1. Aditya L1 Lagrange Point – 1 accessed 6 January 2024. 2. It have seven payload. 3. Aditya L1 has a magnetometer mounted on the deck of the vehicle. 4. Visible Emission Line Coronograph in Aditya L1 will send 1440 photos to Earth every day. Which of the above is/are true?
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Aditya-L1 reached its halo orbit around L1 on 6 January 2024 and carries seven payloads, including a magnetometer on a deployed boom and the VELC coronagraph, which is to send about 1440 images a day. More than one statement is true.
Q96. If 6 * 7 = 2, 3 * 5 = 5, 5 * 8 = 0, then what will be the value of 6 * 8?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 8
Explanation: a * b is the unit digit of a × b: 42 → 2, 15 → 5, 40 → 0. So 6 * 8 = unit digit of 48 = 8.
Q97. The number of daily visitors of a zoo on Sunday is 680 and on other days is 332. If the first day of a 30 days month is Sunday, what will be the average number of daily visitors of the zoo in that month?
(A) 390
(B) 396
(C) 385
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 390
Explanation: The month has 5 Sundays (1, 8, 15, 22, 29) and 25 other days. Average = (5 × 680 + 25 × 332)/30 = 11700/30 = 390.
Q98. Tamil Nadu Coast receives rainfall during winter season due to
(A) Retreating of South-west Monsoon
(B) South-west Monsoon
(C) Western Disturbance
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Retreating of South-west Monsoon
Explanation: In October–December the retreating monsoon (north-east winds) picks up moisture over the Bay of Bengal and brings rain to the Tamil Nadu coast.
Q99. Which one number among the numbers given in options will come in the place of question mark (?) in the series given below? 17, 27, 38, 50, 63, ?
(A) 81
(B) 83
(C) 77
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 77
Explanation: The differences are 10, 11, 12, 13, so the next difference is 14: 63 + 14 = 77.
Q100. The best method to prevent flood is
(A) Grazing
(B) Afforestation
(C) Deforestation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Afforestation
Explanation: Trees slow down run-off, help water soak into the ground and hold the soil, so afforestation is the best way to reduce floods.
Q101. How many of the total number of people have been the Chief Ministers in Bihar since 26th Jan. 1950 to the beginning of 2024?
(A) Only 23 people
(B) Only 25 people
(C) Only 21 people
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Only 23 people
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, 23 different people served as Chief Minister of Bihar in this period (counting each person once, however many terms they had).
Q102. What is the length of diameter of a circular ground whose area is equal to the sum of the area of a circle of radius 8 m and a triangle of area 36π m²?
(A) 15 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 10 m
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 20 m
Explanation: Area = 64π + 36π = 100π, so πr² = 100π gives r = 10 m and diameter = 20 m.
Q103. The animals found in desert are called
(A) Deserticolous
(B) Desertimalia
(C) Desertimals
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Deserticolous
Explanation: Organisms that live in deserts are called deserticolous (Latin colere, to inhabit).
Q104. In Bihar, which of the following facts have been revealed by Bihar Caste Survey, 2023?
(A) Upper Caste 15.52%
(B) Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe 21.33%
(C) Backward Caste 63.14%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The survey reported the unreserved (upper caste) share at 15.52%, SC 19.65% + ST 1.68% = 21.33%, and Backward Classes 27.12% + Extremely Backward Classes 36.01% ≈ 63.1%. All three figures match.
Q105. The famous Indian National Army trials took place at the Red Fort, Delhi in
(A) 1945
(B) 1946
(C) 1944
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 1945
Explanation: The INA trials of Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Sahgal and G.S. Dhillon began at the Red Fort in November 1945.
Q106. On dividing a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc by a + b + c, the quotient obtained is
(A) a² + b² + c² − bc − ca + ab
(B) a² + b² + c² + bc + ca + ab
(C) a² + b² + c² − bc − ca − ab
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) a² + b² + c² − bc − ca − ab
Explanation: a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² − ab − bc − ca), so the quotient is a² + b² + c² − bc − ca − ab.
Q107. Five boys are sitting in a line having their faces at the North. P is at the right of Q. T is on the left of Q but on the right of R. If P is on the left of S, who is sitting at the middle of all of them?
(A) R
(B) Q
(C) S
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Q
Explanation: From left to right the order is R, T, Q, P, S, so Q is in the middle.
Q108. Joint military exercise by India and Japan was conducted in Mahajan area of Rajasthan on 25 February 2024. The name of the joint military exercise was
(A) Atal Guardian 2024
(B) Nagasaki Guardian 2024
(C) Dharma Guardian 2024
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Dharma Guardian 2024
Explanation: Dharma Guardian is the India–Japan army exercise; its 2024 edition was held at Mahajan Field Firing Range, Rajasthan, from 25 February to 9 March 2024.
Q109. Which of the following crops can not be cultivated in river?
(A) Water chestnut
(B) Lotus
(C) Fox nut
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (D). Water chestnut, lotus and fox nut (makhana) are grown in still water such as ponds and wetlands, not in flowing rivers.
Q110. In an examination of Hindi, English and Mathematics subjects, the total marks are 120, 140 and 100 respectively. A student gets 40%, 55% and 45% marks in these subjects respectively. How many marks should he get in Science subject out of the total 180 marks in it so that his combined percentage of marks obtained in all the four subjects becomes 60%?
(A) 156
(B) 160
(C) 154
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 154
Explanation: Total = 540, and 60% of 540 = 324. Marks so far = 48 + 77 + 45 = 170, so he needs 324 − 170 = 154 in Science.
Q111. Padmashree Ushakiran Khan had the following achievements: 1. Sahitya Akademi Award 2010 2. Bharat Bharati 2019 3. Maithili – Kachahi Bans 4. Hindi-Anuttarit Prashna
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 3
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (D): more than one statement is correct. Usha Kiran Khan, the Bihar-born Hindi and Maithili writer, received the Sahitya Akademi Award (for her Maithili novel Bhamati), the Bharat Bharati Samman and the Padma Shri.
Q112. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India, when 73rd and 74th Amendments of the Constitution came into existence?
(A) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(B) H. D. Deve Gowda
(C) Chandra Shekhar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Explanation: The 73rd (Panchayats) and 74th (Municipalities) Amendments were passed in 1992 and came into force in 1993, when P. V. Narasimha Rao was Prime Minister.
Q113. Chemically rust is
(A) Hydrated ferric oxide
(B) Hydrated ferrous oxide
(C) Only ferric oxide
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Hydrated ferric oxide
Explanation: Rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe₂O₃·xH₂O, i.e. hydrated ferric oxide.
Q114. In English alphabet which letter is opposite to letter P?
(A) K
(B) N
(C) L
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) K
Explanation: Opposite letters add up to 27 in position. P is 16th, so its opposite is 27 − 16 = 11th letter, K.
Q115. In which of the following States of India, the maximum teak forest is found?
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh has the largest area of teak forest in India.
Q116. The relationship between algae and fungi in Lichens is called as
(A) Commensalism
(B) Protocooperation
(C) Mutualism
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Mutualism
Explanation: In a lichen the alga makes food by photosynthesis and the fungus gives shelter, water and minerals; both benefit, which is mutualism.
Q117. A rectangle has an area 30 cm² and perimeter 26 cm. Its length (in cm) is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 10
Explanation: l + b = 13 and l × b = 30, so the sides are 10 and 3. The length is 10 cm.
Q118. What are the characters that make a plant a hydrophyte?
(A) Absence of mechanical tissue
(B) Presence of aerenchyma
(C) Presence of well developed vascular system
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Water plants have little or no mechanical tissue (water supports them) and have aerenchyma (air-filled tissue) for buoyancy, but their vascular system is poorly developed. So (A) and (B) are correct.
Q119. Indira Gandhi National Center for the Arts has created a language atlas by conducting speech surveys all over India. It is an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Culture. What is meant by the language atlas of India?
(A) Ethnic map of India
(B) It is language mapping project of India
(C) Natural map of India
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) It is language mapping project of India
Explanation: The Language Atlas of India by IGNCA is a project to survey and map the languages and dialects spoken across India.
Q120. The type of mirror used in vehicles to see the traffic on the rear side is
(A) Concave
(B) Plane
(C) Convex
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Convex
Explanation: A convex mirror always gives an erect, smaller image and covers a wide field of view, so it is used as a rear-view mirror.
Q121. With reference to India and its relations with neighbours, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(A) The foreign policy of India is based on peace and non-violence.
(B) Panchsheel principles are the result of India’s determination to peace.
(C) India is one of the founders of Non-alignment Movement.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: India’s foreign policy rests on peace and peaceful co-existence, Panchsheel (1954) reflects this commitment, and India (Nehru) was a founder of the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961. More than one statement is correct.
Q122. Kargil is located on the bank of
(A) Suru river
(B) Jhelum river
(C) Indus river
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Suru river
Explanation: Kargil town in Ladakh stands on the banks of the Suru river, a tributary of the Indus.
Q123. A completes a work in 15 days, B completes the same work in 8 days while B and C jointly complete the same work in 4 days. If A and C jointly complete the same work in x days while A and B jointly complete it in y days, what is the value of x/y?
(A) 1
(B) 1½
(C) ½
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 1
Explanation: C’s one-day work = 1/4 − 1/8 = 1/8, the same as B. So A + C and A + B work at the same rate, x = y, and x/y = 1.
Q124. The Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri faced which of the following issues challenging the basic values and goals of Indian Nation?
(A) The shortage of food for social and economic transformation
(B) The war with Pakistan in 1965
(C) The Anti Hindi Agitation in South
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Shastri’s term (1964–66) saw severe food shortages (hence ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’), the 1965 war with Pakistan and the 1965 anti-Hindi agitation in Madras State. All three are correct.
Q125. Which country’s Space Agencies have allowed Private Companies to conduct tours of the International Space Station?
(A) Bhutan, Nepal, Singapur
(B) Guyana, Burundi, Paraguay
(C) Turkey, Sweden, Italy
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Turkey, Sweden, Italy
Explanation: In January 2024 the private Axiom Mission 3 (Ax-3), flown by Axiom Space, took astronauts from Turkey, Sweden and Italy to the International Space Station.
Q126. SPMs are used for tracking air quality and for regulating air pollution. Here SPM stands for
(A) Solidified Particulate Matter
(B) Suspended Particulate Matter
(C) Soluble Particulate Matter
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Suspended Particulate Matter
Explanation: SPM means Suspended Particulate Matter: fine solid or liquid particles suspended in the air.
Q127. Which of the following constitute a food chain?
(A) Grass, deer and tiger
(B) Grass, fish and cow
(C) Grass, rabbit and elephant
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Grass, deer and tiger
Explanation: Deer eat grass and tigers eat deer, so grass → deer → tiger is a food chain. Cows do not eat fish, and elephants do not eat rabbits.
Q128. Which was the main centre of activities of Wahabis in Bihar?
(A) Jagdishpur
(B) Champaran
(C) Patna
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Patna
Explanation: Patna was the main centre of the Wahabi movement in India, led there by Wilayat Ali and Inayat Ali.
Q129. The iron pillar wonder of ancient Indian metallurgy is situated in
(A) Pune
(B) Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Delhi
Explanation: The rust-resistant Gupta-era Iron Pillar stands in the Qutub Minar complex at Mehrauli, Delhi.
Q130. The thorough economic liberalisation in India initiated from which of the following years?
(A) After 1991
(B) After 2001
(C) After 1981
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) After 1991
Explanation: Comprehensive economic reforms (liberalisation, privatisation, globalisation) began in July 1991 under P. V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Manmohan Singh.
Q131. Brahmo Samaj’s influence was confined mostly to the
(A) Rural Bengal
(B) Both rural and urban educated groups
(C) Urban educated groups
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Urban educated groups
Explanation: The Brahmo Samaj, founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828, appealed mainly to the English-educated urban middle class and had little reach among the rural masses.
Q132. In a coded language ‘PROBLEM’ is written as ‘MPERLOB’. In the same coded language how will you write ‘NUMBERS’?
(A) SNRUEBM
(B) SRUNEMB
(C) SNRUEMB
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) SNRUEMB
Explanation: The code takes letters in the order 7, 1, 6, 2, 5, 3, 4 (M P E R L O B). Applying this to N U M B E R S gives S N R U E M B.
Q133. Which of the following is the important reason for ethnic violence in Manipur from 3 May 2023?
(A) Meitei Community should be given share in jobs reserved for Kuki Community
(B) Lack of resources to Meitei Community
(C) Meitei Community should be given the status of tribe
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The violence followed the demand (and a March 2023 High Court direction) to grant Scheduled Tribe status to Meiteis, which Kuki groups opposed because it would let Meiteis share tribal reservations in jobs. As per BPSC’s final answer key, more than one option is correct (D).
Q134. The political tendency to build our Nation mainly on Nationalism is led by which of the following Political Party in India?
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) Bharatiya Janata Party
(C) Socialist Party
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Bharatiya Janata Party
Explanation: The Bharatiya Janata Party’s ideology is built around cultural nationalism (integral humanism and ‘nation first’), so BPSC marks (B).
Q135. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 2a and 2b. Its perimeter is
(A) 2√(a² + b²)
(B) 4ab
(C) 4√(a² + b²)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 4√(a² + b²)
Explanation: Diagonals of a rhombus bisect at right angles, so each side = √(a² + b²) and the perimeter = 4√(a² + b²).
Q136. Which bridge was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 24 February 2024 to connect Dwarka in the Gulf of Kutch region?
(A) Kutch Bridge
(B) Sudarshan Bridge
(C) Dwarka Bridge
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Sudarshan Bridge
Explanation: Sudarshan Setu, India’s longest cable-stayed bridge (about 2.3 km), links Okha on the mainland to Beyt Dwarka island; it was inaugurated on 25 February 2024.
Q137. In a food chain, which trophic level has highest energy level?
(A) Consumers of first trophic level
(B) Consumers of top trophic level
(C) Producers
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Producers
Explanation: Only about 10% of energy passes from one trophic level to the next, so producers (green plants) hold the most energy.
Q138. Which of the following will turn blue litmus red?
(A) Washing soda solution
(B) Vinegar
(C) Baking soda solution
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Vinegar
Explanation: Acids turn blue litmus red. Vinegar contains acetic acid; washing soda and baking soda solutions are basic.
Q139. The country India shares longest international boundary with
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Bangladesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Bangladesh
Explanation: India’s longest land border is with Bangladesh, about 4,096 km.
Q140. Which of the following is the oldest river valley project in Bihar?
(A) Damodar River Valley Project
(B) Sone River Valley Project
(C) Kosi River Valley Project
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Damodar River Valley Project
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (A). The Damodar Valley Corporation (1948) was independent India’s first multipurpose river valley project and covered undivided Bihar, though the older Sone canal system dates from the 1870s.
Q141. The values of x and y satisfying the equations 2x + 3y = 77 and 3x + 2y = 73 are respectively
(A) 12 and 18
(B) 11 and 19
(C) 13 and 17
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 13 and 17
Explanation: Adding: 5x + 5y = 150, so x + y = 30. Subtracting: y − x = 4. Hence x = 13, y = 17.
Q142. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment in India made judiciary subservient of Parliament?
(A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(B) 43rd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 40th Constitutional Amendment
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment (1976) curtailed judicial review and declared that constitutional amendments could not be questioned in any court, placing the judiciary below Parliament. The 43rd Amendment (1977) undid much of this.
Q143. Which area does China claim as its “Sacred territory”?
(A) Tibet
(B) Taiwan
(C) Macau
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: China calls both Tibet and Taiwan its ‘sacred territory’. BPSC’s key remark says so, and marks (D).
Q144. The grassland with scattered trees is called as
(A) Savanna
(B) Agroforest
(C) Rain forest
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Savanna
Explanation: A savanna is a tropical grassland with scattered trees, as in East Africa.
Q145. Who founded the Indian National Congress in 1885?
(A) Surendranath Banerjee
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by A. O. Hume, a retired British civil servant; its first president was W. C. Bonnerjee. None of the options is correct, so the answer is (E).
Q146. The value of 2{(467 + 359)² − 2 × 467 × 359} / {(467)² + (359)²} is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 2
Explanation: (a + b)² − 2ab = a² + b², so the expression is 2(a² + b²)/(a² + b²) = 2.
Q147. The Preamble of the Constitution of India guarantees justice. It means India allows its people
(A) To elect their representatives
(B) To have certain basic rights
(C) To participate in the decision making
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) To have certain basic rights
Explanation: The Preamble promises social, economic and political justice, which is secured through certain basic rights given to every citizen. BPSC’s key remark says justice includes certain basic rights.
Q148. Which one of the North-eastern States of India has the highest concentration of tribal population?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Mizoram
(C) Meghalaya
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Mizoram
Explanation: As per Census 2011, Mizoram has the highest share of Scheduled Tribes among states (about 94.4%), ahead of Nagaland (86.5%) and Meghalaya (86.1%).
Q149. Which of the ecological pyramids show both upright and inverted types?
(A) Pyramid of number
(B) Pyramid of biomass
(C) Pyramid of energy
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The pyramid of numbers (e.g. a tree ecosystem) and the pyramid of biomass (e.g. in the sea) can be upright or inverted; the pyramid of energy is always upright. So (A) and (B) are correct.
Q150. How many kilometers is the total length of Atal Setu connecting Mumbai and New Mumbai?
(A) 21.5 kilometers
(B) 21.8 kilometers
(C) 21.3 kilometers
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 21.8 kilometers
Explanation: Atal Setu (Mumbai Trans Harbour Link), opened in January 2024, is about 21.8 km long; it is India’s longest sea bridge.
How to Prepare for BPSC TRE General Studies
- Work out every maths question on paper. (E) None of the above is often the answer, so check your result rather than picking the closest option.
- Read options (D) and (E) carefully. They are real answers in TRE, not fillers.
- Give extra time to Bihar: districts, crops, and Bihar’s role in the freedom struggle.
- Revise current affairs from the 12 months before your exam.
- Practise timed mock tests on the ExamYaari app.
More BPSC TRE Resources
- All BPSC TRE General Studies question papers
- यही प्रश्न पत्र हिंदी में देखें
- BPSC TRE 4.0 Recruitment 2026
- BPSC TRE 4.0 Syllabus 2026
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
How many General Studies questions were there in BPSC TRE 3.0 Class 1–5?
The General Studies part had 120 questions (Q31–150).
Are these the official BPSC answers?
Yes. The answers are from the BPSC Final Answer Key (15 September 2024), booklet Series E. The explanations are written by ExamYaari.
What do options (D) and (E) mean in BPSC TRE?
(D) usually means more than one option is correct and (E) means none is. Both appear as correct answers in the official key.
When is the BPSC TRE 4.0 exam?
BPSC has not announced the TRE 4.0 exam date yet. Applications under Advt. No. 15/2026 close on 3 November 2026.
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