BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies Question Paper (Class 11–12, 22 July 2024) with Official Answers

BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies question paper (Class 11–12, 22 July 2024): all 40 GS questions in English with BPSC’s official final answers and a short explanation for each. Every Class 11–12 candidate in this sitting answered these same 40 questions, whatever their subject.

BPSC TRE 4.0 is now open for 33,320 posts, and 16,540 of them are for Class 11–12. General Studies counts towards your merit in every subject, so it’s the best place to start your practice.

Table of Contents

• Exam overview
• BPSC TRE 4.0 at a glance
• Topic-wise analysis
• GS questions with answers (Q31–70)
• How to prepare for GS
• FAQs

BPSC TRE 3.0 Class 11–12: Exam Overview

Exam	BPSC School Teacher (Re-)Examination, TRE 3.0 (Advt. No. 22/2024)
Conducting body	Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC)
Class level	Class 11–12 (Higher Secondary)
Exam date	22 July 2024, 1st sitting
Duration / marks	2 hours 30 minutes, 150 marks
Part I	Language (qualifying): Q1–30
Part II	General Studies: Q31–70 (on this page)
Part III	Your subject: Q71–150
Options	Five per question; (D) is ‘More than one of the above’ and (E) is ‘None of the above’
Answers on this page	BPSC Final Answer Key (17 October 2024), booklet Series E

BPSC TRE 4.0 at a Glance

Advertisement	No. 15/2026 (replaces Advt. 14/2026)
Total posts	33,320
Class 11–12 posts	16,540
Last date to apply	3 November 2026 (fee by 2 November)
Exam date	Not announced yet

Topic-wise Analysis of GS Questions

Here’s how the 40 questions are spread across topics:

Topic	Questions
Mathematics	8
Physics	3
Biology	5
Current affairs & science-tech	7
Geography (India, world, Bihar)	8
History & national movement (incl. Bihar)	9

Bihar gets special attention: questions on paddy and silk production by district, the Champaran Satyagraha, the Bihar Provincial Congress Committee and the Kisan Sabha. Also note how often the answer is (D) or (E): 11 of the 40 answers here are one of these two.

BPSC TRE 3.0 GS Questions with Answers (Q31–70)

The question numbers are the same as in the original booklet (Series E). Answers follow BPSC’s final answer key; the explanations are written by the ExamYaari team.

Q31. Which of the following is the value of (x + 1/x)²?

(A) x² + 1/x²
(B) x² − 1/x²
(C) x² + 1/x² + 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: (x + 1/x)² = x² + 2 + 1/x². None of the options has the + 2, so the answer is (E).

Q32. An article is marked at 10% more than the CP. If a discount of 10% is allowed, then which of the following is right?

(A) 1% gain
(B) 1% loss
(C) no gain no loss
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) 1% loss
Explanation: Selling price = 1.10 × 0.90 = 0.99 of CP, so there is a 1% loss.

Q33. By what number should 81 be divided to get a perfect cube?

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 3
Explanation: 81 = 3⁴. Dividing by 3 gives 27 = 3³, a perfect cube.

Q34. The difference between two whole numbers is 66. The ratio of the two numbers is 2:5. The two numbers are:

(A) 60 and 6
(B) 100 and 33
(C) 110 and 44
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: 5k − 2k = 66 gives k = 22, so the numbers are 44 and 110 (in the ratio 2:5). BPSC’s final answer key marks (E), since option (C) lists them as 110 and 44, which is the ratio 5:2.

Q35. In a parallelogram ABCD, angle A and angle B are in the ratio 1:2. Find the angle A.

(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 60°
Explanation: Adjacent angles of a parallelogram add up to 180°: x + 2x = 180°, so A = 60°.

Q36. The height of a cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and the total surface area is 968 cm² is:

(A) 15 cm
(B) 17 cm
(C) 19 cm
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 15 cm
Explanation: Total surface area = 2πr(r + h) = 44(7 + h) = 968, so 7 + h = 22 and h = 15 cm.

Q37. If (−3)^m+1 × (−3)⁵ = (−3)⁷, then the value of m is:

(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 1
Explanation: Adding powers: m + 1 + 5 = 7, so m = 1.

Q38. If x and y are inversely proportional, then:

(A) y/x = constant
(B) xy = constant
(C) x/y = constant
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) xy = constant
Explanation: For inverse proportion, the product xy stays constant.

Q39. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into 5 equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of the combination is R′, then the ratio R/R′ is ___

(A) 1/25
(B) 1/5
(C) 25
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 25
Explanation: Each piece is R/5. Five of them in parallel give R′ = (R/5)/5 = R/25, so R/R′ = 25.

Q40. An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A current from a service mains for 2 hours. What will be the rate at which heat is developed in the heater?

(A) 220 watt
(B) 120 watt
(C) 210 watt
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Rate of heat = power = I²R = 15² × 8 = 1800 W, which is not among the options.

Q41. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in the dictionary?

(A) A convex lens of 50 cm
(B) A concave lens of 50 cm
(C) A concave lens of 5 cm
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: A magnifying glass is a convex lens of short focal length (such as 5 cm). None of the listed lenses fits, so the answer is (E).

Q42. The human eye forms the image of an object at its ________

(A) Cornea
(B) Iris
(C) Retina
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Retina
Explanation: The eye lens focuses the image on the retina.

Q43. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?

(A) Ovary
(B) Uterus
(C) Vas deferens
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Vas deferens
Explanation: The vas deferens carries sperm in the male reproductive system.

Q44. The anther contains _________

(A) Sepals
(B) Ovules
(C) Pollen grains
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Pollen grains
Explanation: The anther is the part of the stamen that produces and holds pollen grains.

Q45. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ______

(A) Amoeba
(B) Yeast
(C) Plasmodium
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Yeast
Explanation: Yeast (and Hydra) reproduce by budding; Amoeba reproduces by binary fission.

Q46. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?

(A) Antibiotic
(B) Antacid
(C) Analgesic
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Antacid
Explanation: Antacids neutralise excess stomach acid and relieve indigestion.

Q47. The task of processing citizenship applications under the CAA will be undertaken by

(A) Postal Department
(B) Census Department
(C) Central Security IB
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Under the CAA rules, applications are handled by committees led by the Census directorate, with the Department of Posts doing document checks. BPSC’s key gives (D), more than one.

Q48. In which of the following countries did India launch its UPI?

(A) Thailand
(B) Myanmar
(C) Mauritius
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Mauritius
Explanation: UPI services were launched in Mauritius (and Sri Lanka) in February 2024.

Q49. What is the name of the spacecraft to be launched by ISRO in 2024 to carry astronauts?

(A) Akashyan
(B) Gaganyan
(C) Bhramyan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Gaganyan
Explanation: Gaganyaan is ISRO’s human spaceflight mission.

Q50. Which country is not a member of the G7?

(A) Russia
(B) Canada
(C) USA
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Russia
Explanation: The G7 is the USA, UK, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and Canada. Russia was suspended from the G8 in 2014.

Q51. The process involved in achieving green hydrogen is

(A) Electrolysis
(B) Dehydrogenesis
(C) Dehydration
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Electrolysis
Explanation: Green hydrogen is made by electrolysis of water using renewable electricity.

Q52. Which technology can be used to revive deceased individuals?

(A) Deepfake
(B) AI
(C) Chatbot
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: AI-based deepfakes can recreate the face and voice of a deceased person, so more than one option applies.

Q53. In the cost of living index parameter 2024, which country is better than India?

(A) Nigeria
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Pakistan
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is Pakistan.

Q54. Who supported Gandhiji in the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 in support of farmers?

(A) Birsa Munda
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Satya Narayan Sinha
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Rajendra Prasad was among the lawyers who worked with Gandhiji in Champaran.

Q55. Which is the moon-like planet?

(A) Mercury
(B) Mars
(C) Earth
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Mercury
Explanation: Mercury has a cratered surface and almost no atmosphere, much like the Moon.

Q56. On the basis of fossils, which is the origin place of man?

(A) Rift valley of Africa
(B) Central Asia
(C) Jerusalem
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Rift valley of Africa
Explanation: The oldest human fossils come from the East African Rift Valley.

Q57. In India, dry point settlement is found in

(A) Flood prone area
(B) Bikaner
(C) Aravali region
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Dry point settlements grow on raised dry ground in flood-prone areas. BPSC’s key gives (D), more than one of the above.

Q58. In which district of Bihar is paddy crop production maximum?

(A) Bhojpur
(B) Rohtas
(C) Nalanda
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Rohtas
Explanation: Rohtas is known as the ‘rice bowl of Bihar’.

Q59. On which mountain is Tehran situated?

(A) Alburz
(B) Zagros
(C) Makran
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Alburz
Explanation: Tehran lies at the southern foot of the Alborz mountains.

Q60. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats of India is:

(A) Anai Mudi
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Mahendragiri
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The highest peak of the Eastern Ghats is Arma Konda (Jindhagada) in Andhra Pradesh. Anai Mudi is in the Western Ghats and Kanchenjunga is in the Himalayas.

Q61. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna?

(A) Agricultural expansion
(B) Large scale development projects
(C) Grazing and fuel wood collection
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Grazing and fuel wood collection
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (C).

Q62. In which district of Bihar is silk textile production maximum?

(A) Madhubani
(B) Bhagalpur
(C) Aurangabad
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Bhagalpur
Explanation: Bhagalpur is famous for Tussar silk and is called the ‘Silk City’.

Q63. Who was the Viceroy of India during the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Chelmsford
(C) Lord Irwin
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Lord Chelmsford
Explanation: Lord Chelmsford was Viceroy in April 1919.

Q64. The first President of the Indian National Congress was:

(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) W. C. Bonnerjee
(C) Badruddin Tyabji
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) W. C. Bonnerjee
Explanation: W. C. Bonnerjee presided over the first session in Bombay in 1885.

Q65. Who among the following is also known as the Grand Old Man of India?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji is called the Grand Old Man of India.

Q66. Which of the following movements was started by M. K. Gandhi?

(A) Quit India Movement
(B) Non cooperation movement
(C) Swadeshi movement
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Gandhiji launched both the Non-Cooperation (1920) and Quit India (1942) movements. The Swadeshi movement began in 1905.

Q67. Who was the leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha?

(A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Explanation: Vallabhbhai Patel led the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) and earned the title ‘Sardar’.

Q68. Who among the following is not associated with the Home Rule movement?

(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Besant and Tilak founded the Home Rule Leagues, and Sarojini Naidu also worked for the movement, so none of them fits.

Q69. Who founded the Bihar Provincial Congress Committee in 1920?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Anugrah Narayan Sinha
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: As per BPSC’s final answer key, the answer is (D), more than one of the above.

Q70. The All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) was founded in 1936 in Bihar under the leadership of:

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jai Prakash Narayan
(C) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
Explanation: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the first president of the All India Kisan Sabha.

How to Prepare for BPSC TRE General Studies

• Work out every maths question on paper. Many have (E) None of the above as the answer, so check your result rather than picking the closest option.
• Read the options (D) and (E) carefully. They are real answers in TRE, not fillers.
• Give extra time to Bihar: districts and their crops, Bihar’s role in the freedom struggle, and Bihar’s leaders.
• Revise current affairs from the 12 months before your exam: launches, international groups, government schemes.
• Practise timed mock tests on the ExamYaari app to build speed.

More BPSC TRE Resources

• All BPSC TRE General Studies question papers
• यही प्रश्न पत्र हिंदी में देखें (BPSC TRE 3.0 सामान्य अध्ययन)
• BPSC TRE 4.0 Recruitment 2026: posts and eligibility
• BPSC TRE 4.0 Syllabus 2026

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