Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 2019 (Set H) with Answers
Looking for the Bihar STET Computer Science question paper 2019? Here is the complete Paper II Computer Science paper of the exam held on 2019 (Set H), with the correct answer and a short explanation for every question. All 150 questions are given as text, so you can practise them online, revise topic by topic and get a feel for the real exam pattern.
Note: These answers were prepared and checked by the ExamYaari team. They are not the official BSEB answer key. If you think an answer is wrong, tell us in the comments. This is the Bihar STET 2019 Computer Science paper (Paper II, Subject Code 207, Set H, 2:00–4:30 PM). The exam date is not printed on the question booklet.
Table of Contents
- Exam Overview
- Topic-wise Analysis
- Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills (Q1–50)
- Part II: Computer Science (Q51–150)
- More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers
- FAQs
Bihar STET Computer Science 2019: Exam Overview
| Exam | Bihar STET 2019 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test) |
| Conducting Body | Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) |
| Paper | Paper II, Computer Science (Subject Code 207) |
| Exam Date | 2019 |
| Shift / Time | Set H (2:00 PM – 4:30 PM) |
| Total Questions | 150 MCQs |
| Part 1 | Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills: Q1–50 |
| Part 2 | Part II: Computer Science: Q51–150 |
Topic-wise Analysis of Computer Science Questions
Here is roughly how the 100 Computer Science questions in this paper are spread across the syllabus. Use it to decide which topics to revise first.
| Topic | No. of Questions |
| MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint) | 22 |
| Computer Networks & Internet | 15 |
| Data Structures & Algorithms | 14 |
| E-commerce & IT Fundamentals | 8 |
| Digital Electronics & COA | 8 |
| Computer Fundamentals & History | 8 |
| Database & SQL | 7 |
| Theory of Computation | 6 |
| OOP Concepts | 4 |
| Operating System | 4 |
| Other Topics | 3 |
| Web Technology & HTML | 1 |
Part I: General Knowledge & Other Skills (Q1–50)
Q1. Who said, “The Principles (Directive Principles) should be made the basis of all the future legislation”?
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. B. N. Rao
(D) Dr. Zakir Hussain
Answer: (B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar told the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles should be the basis of all future executive and legislative action.
Q2. Which of the following does not belong to the solar system?
(A) Planets
(B) Comets
(C) Asteroids
(D) Nebulae
Answer: (D) Nebulae
Explanation: Nebulae are clouds of gas and dust in interstellar space, outside the solar system.
Q3. The plants which grow on saline soil are known as
(A) xerophytes
(B) hydrophytes
(C) succulents
(D) halophytes
Answer: (D) halophytes
Explanation: Halophytes (e.g. mangroves) are salt-tolerant plants that grow in saline soil.
Q4. Which of the following colours of light undergoes the least deviation while passing through a prism?
(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue
Answer: (A) Red
Explanation: Red light has the longest wavelength and the lowest refractive index in glass, so it deviates the least.
Q5. The world’s largest telescope is in which country?
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) United States of America
Answer: (C) China
Explanation: China’s FAST (500 m aperture spherical radio telescope) was the world’s largest single-dish telescope in 2019.
Q6. Pointing towards Garima, Rakesh said, “His father is the only son of my father.” How is Rakesh related to Garima?
(A) Brother
(B) Father
(C) Uncle
(D) None of them
Answer: (B) Father
Explanation: The only son of Rakesh’s father is Rakesh himself, so Rakesh is Garima’s father.
Q7. Samir went 15 m to the west from his house and then turned left and walked 20 m. He then turned east and walked 25 m and finally turning left covered 20 m. How far was he from his house?
(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 40 m
(D) 80 m
Answer: (B) 10 m
Explanation: West 15, south 20, east 25, north 20: he ends 25 − 15 = 10 m east of his house.
Q8. If DEEP is coded in a symbolic language as 60 and RABIT as 100, then how will HAIR be coded?
(A) 27
(B) 72
(C) 90
(D) 160
Answer: (B) 72
Explanation: Code = 2 × (sum of letter positions): DEEP = 2 × 30 = 60, RABIT = 2 × 50 = 100, HAIR = 2 × (8+1+9+18) = 72.
Q9. If ‘x’ means ‘−’, ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘÷’, then 8 ÷ 4 x 2 − 4 + 2 = ?
(A) 2
(B) 28
(C) 32
(D) 36
Answer: (C) 32
Explanation: After substitution: 8 × 4 − 2 + 4 ÷ 2 = 32 − 2 + 2 = 32.
Q10. Find the missing number in the figure: a circle is divided into six sectors containing 8, 27, 64, 125, 216 and ?
(A) 4
(B) 305
(C) 343
(D) 729
Answer: (C) 343
Explanation: The numbers are cubes: 2³, 3³, 4³, 5³, 6³, so the missing number is 7³ = 343.
Q11. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on
(A) 5 June
(B) 5 July
(C) 5 May
(D) 5 March
Answer: (A) 5 June
Explanation: World Environment Day is observed every year on 5 June.
Q12. Due to which of the following can we not see during a fog?
(A) Scattering of light
(B) Reflection
(C) Internal reflection
(D) Refraction
Answer: (A) Scattering of light
Explanation: Fog droplets scatter light in all directions, so light from objects does not reach our eyes clearly.
Q13. Which of the following represents a billion characters?
(A) Kilobytes
(B) Gigabytes
(C) Terabytes
(D) Megabytes
Answer: (B) Gigabytes
Explanation: One gigabyte ≈ 10⁹ bytes, and one byte stores one character.
Q14. What was the early capital of Magadh?
(A) Vaishali
(B) Champa
(C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
(D) Pataliputra
Answer: (C) Rajgriha (Girivraja)
Explanation: Rajgriha (Girivraja) was Magadha’s first capital; it later moved to Pataliputra.
Q15. Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environment friendly?
(A) Biogas
(B) Ethanol
(C) CNG
(D) Hydrogen
Answer: (D) Hydrogen
Explanation: Burning hydrogen produces only water and no carbon emissions.
Q16. Among the following, whom did K. K. Foundation on May 16, 2019 announce as the winner of the 28th Bihari Puraskar?
(A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
(B) Leeladhar Jagudi
(C) Keerti Parihar
(D) None of them
Answer: (A) Manisha Kulshreshtha
Explanation: The K. K. Birla Foundation gave the 28th Bihari Puraskar to Manisha Kulshreshtha for her novel ‘Swapnpash’.
Q17. The 54th Jnanpith Award was given to which English writer, in New Delhi on June 12, 2019?
(A) Sunil Shrivastava
(B) Amitav Ghosh
(C) Yuvraj Bhattarai
(D) Leeladhar Jagudi
Answer: (B) Amitav Ghosh
Explanation: Amitav Ghosh was the first English-language writer to receive the Jnanpith Award (54th, 2018).
Q18. Among the following, who was the Chief Election Commissioner of India at present (2019)?
(A) Ashok Lavasa
(B) Sunil Arora
(C) Sushil Chandra
(D) None of them
Answer: (B) Sunil Arora
Explanation: Sunil Arora was the Chief Election Commissioner from December 2018 to April 2021.
Q19. The minimum pension provided to farmers attaining the age of 60 years to all small and marginal farmers (SMF) by the Central Government from May 31, 2019 is
(A) Rs. 2000 per month
(B) Rs. 3000 per month
(C) Rs. 4000 per month
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Rs. 3000 per month
Explanation: Under the PM Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana, small and marginal farmers get a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after age 60.
Q20. The winner of the world mixed team badminton championship Sudirman Cup 2019 is
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) China
Explanation: China beat Japan in the final of the 2019 Sudirman Cup at Nanning.
Q21. Which of the following is not used in making solar cells?
(A) Silicon
(B) Platinum
(C) Gallium
(D) Germanium
Answer: (B) Platinum
Explanation: Solar cells use semiconductors such as silicon, gallium (arsenide) and germanium; platinum is a metal, not a semiconductor.
Q22. Which Article of the Constitution of India is related to Right to Equality before law?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
Answer: (B) Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of the laws.
Q23. The brain of any computer is
(A) ALU
(B) CPU
(C) Memory
(D) Control Unit (CU)
Answer: (B) CPU
Explanation: The CPU processes all instructions and controls the other parts, so it is called the brain of the computer.
Q24. At constant temperature, the speed of sound is maximum in which of the following gases?
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) In all these gases equal
Answer: (A) Hydrogen
Explanation: The speed of sound in a gas varies as 1/√(molar mass); hydrogen is the lightest gas, so sound travels fastest in it.
Q25. ‘National Emergency’ may be declared by the President of India in line with
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 395
Answer: (A) Article 352
Explanation: Article 352 provides for a National Emergency on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
Q26. The ‘World Wetlands Day’ is celebrated on which day?
(A) 2nd March
(B) 22nd March
(C) 2nd February
(D) 22nd May
Answer: (C) 2nd February
Explanation: World Wetlands Day is on 2 February, the date the Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971.
Q27. “Durand Cup” is associated with which of the following games?
(A) Polo
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
Answer: (B) Football
Explanation: The Durand Cup (started in 1888) is one of the oldest football tournaments in the world.
Q28. “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” Who said?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer: (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation: This famous slogan was given by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Q29. In the Constitution of India, Right to Free and Compulsory Elementary Education is included in the section on
(A) Human Rights
(B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
(C) Directive Principles of States Policy
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Fundamental Rights of citizens
Explanation: The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for ages 6–14 a Fundamental Right.
Q30. The number of chromosomes in the human body are
(A) 48
(B) 46
(C) 44
(D) 42
Answer: (B) 46
Explanation: A human body cell has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).
Q31. The average of 20 numbers is 15 and the average of first five numbers is 12. The average of the rest is
(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 13
Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: Total = 300; first five = 60; remaining 15 numbers = 240, so their average = 16.
Q32. If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 7 and C : D = 8 : 9, then A : D is equal to
(A) 3 : 7
(B) 7 : 3
(C) 21 : 10
(D) 10 : 21
Answer: (D) 10 : 21
Explanation: A : D = (3 × 5 × 8) : (4 × 7 × 9) = 120 : 252 = 10 : 21.
Q33. The perimeter of a rectangle is 160 metre, and the difference of two sides is 48 metre. Find the side of a square whose area is equal to the area of this rectangle.
(A) 32 m
(B) 8 m
(C) 4 m
(D) 16 m
Answer: (A) 32 m
Explanation: l + b = 80 and l − b = 48 give l = 64, b = 16; area = 1024 m², so the square’s side = √1024 = 32 m.
Q34. A man walking at the rate of 5 km/hr crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the bridge (in metres) is
(A) 600
(B) 750
(C) 1000
(D) 1250
Answer: (D) 1250
Explanation: Distance = 5 km/h × (15/60) h = 1.25 km = 1250 m.
Q35. If A is an acute angle and cot A + cosec A = 3, then the value of sin A is
(A) 1
(B) 4/5
(C) 3/5
(D) 0
Answer: (C) 3/5
Explanation: (1 + cos A)/sin A = 3 gives cot(A/2) = 3, so tan(A/2) = 1/3 and sin A = 2t/(1 + t²) = (2/3)/(10/9) = 3/5.
Q36. The Speaker of Lok Sabha in India is elected by the
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) All Speakers of State Legislative Assemblies
(C) Members of Lok Sabha
(D) Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Answer: (C) Members of Lok Sabha
Explanation: Under Article 93, the members of the Lok Sabha elect the Speaker from among themselves.
Q37. Which of the following is a major source of oceanic salinity?
(A) Land
(B) Rivers
(C) Ash from volcanoes
(D) Wind
Answer: (B) Rivers
Explanation: Most of the ocean’s salt comes from weathered rocks on land, carried to the sea by rivers.
Q38. Which strait connects Red Sea and Indian Ocean?
(A) Malacca
(B) Bosporus
(C) Hormuz
(D) Bab-el-Mandeb
Answer: (D) Bab-el-Mandeb
Explanation: The Bab-el-Mandeb strait links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean.
Q39. Which of the following is a Harappan port?
(A) Mahasthangarh
(B) Nagapattanam
(C) Lothal
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) Lothal
Explanation: Lothal in Gujarat had a dockyard and was a major Harappan port.
Q40. At present the Constitution of India comprises
(A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles, 25 Parts and 8 Schedules
(C) 372 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) 465 Articles, 25 Parts and 12 Schedules
Explanation: After many amendments the Constitution had about 465 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules (the original had 395 articles, 22 parts and 8 schedules).
Q41. Which option will take the place of (?) in the following letter pattern? JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, ?
(A) OEP
(B) NEO
(C) MEN
(D) PFQ
Answer: (B) NEO
Explanation: Each letter moves one step forward: M→N, D→E, N→O, giving NEO.
Q42. Which number will take the place of (?) in the following number series? 16, 23, 31, 40, 50, 61, ?
(A) 73
(B) 77
(C) 83
(D) 81
Answer: (A) 73
Explanation: Differences are 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, so the next is 61 + 12 = 73.
Q43. [Figure-based question] How many triangles are there in the following figure? (A triangle with a line drawn from each vertex to the opposite side, all three lines meeting at one point.)
(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 9
(D) 7
Answer: (A) 16
Explanation: A triangle divided by three such lines (cevians) through a common point contains 16 triangles in total.
Q44. If ‘Sand’ is coded as ‘Brick’, ‘Brick’ as ‘House’, ‘House’ as ‘Temple’, ‘Temple’ as ‘Palace’, then where do you worship?
(A) Palace
(B) Temple
(C) Brick
(D) House
Answer: (A) Palace
Explanation: We worship in a temple, and ‘Temple’ is coded as ‘Palace’.
Q45. In a certain code language, LIGHT is written as JGEFR. How will SHORT be written in that language?
(A) FQMPR
(B) QFMPR
(C) FQMRP
(D) QFMRP
Answer: (B) QFMPR
Explanation: Each letter moves two steps back: S→Q, H→F, O→M, R→P, T→R, giving QFMPR.
Q46. A number being divided by 52 gives remainder 45. If the number is divided by 13, the remainder will be
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 7
Answer: (B) 6
Explanation: N = 52k + 45. Since 52 is divisible by 13, the remainder is 45 mod 13 = 6.
Q47. Which of the following is the largest number? √2, ∛3, ∜4, ⁶√6
(A) √2
(B) ∛3
(C) ∜4
(D) ⁶√6
Answer: (B) ∛3
Explanation: Raising each to the 12th power gives 64, 81, 64 and 36, so ∛3 is the largest.
Q48. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their LCM is 120. The sum of the numbers is
(A) 70
(B) 35
(C) 140
(D) 105
Answer: (A) 70
Explanation: The numbers are 3x and 4x with LCM 12x = 120, so x = 10; the numbers are 30 and 40 and their sum is 70.
Q49. When 60 is subtracted from 60% of a number, the result is 60. The number is
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 180
(D) 200
Answer: (D) 200
Explanation: 0.6N − 60 = 60 gives 0.6N = 120, so N = 200.
Q50. If the cost price of 15 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books, the loss per cent is
(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 25
Answer: (D) 25
Explanation: Let CP of 1 book = 1; CP of 20 books = 20 and SP = 15, so loss = 5/20 × 100 = 25%.
Part II: Computer Science (Q51–150)
Q51. How can you update the values of formula cells if Auto Calculate mode of Excel is disabled?
(A) F8
(B) F9
(C) F10
(D) F11
Answer: (B) F9
Explanation: F9 recalculates all formulas in open workbooks when calculation is set to manual.
Q52. You want to set such that when you type Baishakh and drag the fill handle, Excel should produce Jaistha, Aashadh and so on. What will you set to effect that?
(A) Custom List
(B) Auto Fill Options
(C) Fill Across Worksheet
(D) Fill Series
Answer: (A) Custom List
Explanation: Adding the months to a Custom List lets the fill handle continue that sequence automatically.
Q53. Where can you change automatic or manual calculation mode in Excel?
(A) Double CAL indicator on status bar
(B) Go to Tools >> Options >> Calculation and mark the corresponding radio button
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Go to Tools >> Options >> Calculation and mark the corresponding radio button
Explanation: In older Excel versions, the calculation mode is set under Tools > Options > Calculation (now File > Options > Formulas).
Q54. How can you show or hide the grid lines in Excel Worksheet?
(A) Go to Tools >> Options >> View tab and mark or remove the check box named Gridline
(B) Click Gridline tool on Forms toolbar
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Go to Tools >> Options >> View tab and mark or remove the check box named Gridline
Explanation: Gridlines are turned on or off with the Gridlines check box under Options > View (in newer versions, on the View tab of the ribbon).
Q55. Which of the following Excel screen components cannot be turned on or off?
(A) Formula Bar
(B) Status Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: The formula bar, status bar and toolbars can all be shown or hidden, so none of them is the answer.
Q56. What happens when you press Ctrl + X after selecting some cells in Excel?
(A) The cell content of selected cells disappear from cell and stored in clipboard
(B) The cells selected are marked for cutting
(C) The selected cells are deleted and the cells are shifted left
(D) The selected cells are deleted and cells are shifted up
Answer: (B) The cells selected are marked for cutting
Explanation: In Excel, Ctrl + X only marks the cells with a moving border; the content moves only when you paste.
Q57. Which of the following options is not available in Paste Special dialog box?
(A) Add
(B) Subtract
(C) Divide
(D) SQRT
Answer: (D) SQRT
Explanation: Paste Special offers Add, Subtract, Multiply and Divide operations, but not square root.
Q58. Which command will you choose to convert a column of data into row?
(A) Cut and Paste
(B) Edit >> Paste Special >> Transpose
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Edit >> Paste Special >> Transpose
Explanation: Paste Special > Transpose switches rows into columns and columns into rows.
Q59. It is acceptable to let long text flow into adjacent cells on a worksheet when
(A) data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(B) no data will be entered in the adjacent cells
(C) there is no suitable abbreviation for the text
(D) there is no time to format the text
Answer: (B) no data will be entered in the adjacent cells
Explanation: Text spills over only while the next cells are empty; once data is entered there, the text gets cut off.
Q60. Which of the cell pointers indicates you that you can make selection?
(A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
(B) Small thin plus icon
(C) Mouse Pointer with anchor at the tip
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
Explanation: The thick white plus (doctor’s cross) pointer is used to select cells; the thin black plus is the fill handle.
Q61. Which of the following is a primary key in a student table?
(A) UID number
(B) Admission number
(C) Account number
(D) PAN
Answer: (B) Admission number
Explanation: Every student has a unique admission number, so it identifies each record in a student table.
Q62. Which of the following is a valid SQL command?
(A) cin
(B) cout
(C) tuple
(D) select
Answer: (D) select
Explanation: SELECT is an SQL command; cin and cout belong to C++ and ‘tuple’ is a term, not a command.
Q63. Which PowerPoint view works best for adding slide transition?
(A) Animations
(B) Chart Wizard
(C) Transition Wizard
(D) Auto Content Wizard
Answer: (A) Animations
Explanation: Slide transitions are usually added in Slide Sorter view or from the Animations/Transitions menu; of the given options, Animations is the closest.
Q64. Objects are
(A) Design of function
(B) Creator of data
(C) Instances of classes
(D) Program block
Answer: (C) Instances of classes
Explanation: In OOP, an object is an instance of a class.
Q65. You can edit an embedded organization chart object by
(A) Double clicking the organization chart object
(B) Clicking edit object
(C) Right clicking the chart object, then clicking edit MS-Organization Chart object
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: (D) Both (A) and (C)
Explanation: An embedded org chart opens for editing either by double-clicking it or through its right-click edit option.
Q66. In Boolean algebra A.A is equal to
(A) A
(B) 2A
(C) A²
(D) 1
Answer: (A) A
Explanation: By the idempotent law, A · A = A.
Q67. Slide sorter can be accessed from which menu?
(A) View
(B) Edit
(C) File
(D) Insert
Answer: (A) View
Explanation: Slide Sorter is one of the views under the View menu.
Q68. In Boolean algebra the function of AND operator is
(A) +
(B) −
(C) /
(D) *
Answer: (D) *
Explanation: AND is written as a dot or multiplication sign (A·B or A*B); + is OR.
Q69. What would you choose to create a pre-formatted style?
(A) Format
(B) Slide layout
(C) Slide sorter view
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Slide layout
Explanation: A slide layout gives a ready-made arrangement of placeholders, i.e. a pre-formatted style for the slide.
Q70. Which of the following logical operations is represented by the + sign in Boolean algebra?
(A) OR
(B) NOT
(C) NOR
(D) AND
Answer: (A) OR
Explanation: In Boolean algebra, + stands for logical OR.
Q71. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called
(A) computer network
(B) distributed system
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) none of the mentioned
Answer: (B) distributed system
Explanation: A distributed system is a group of independent computers that appears to its users as one coherent system.
Q72. Two devices are in network, if
(A) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
(B) a process is running on both devices
(C) PIDs of the processes running on different devices are same
(D) none of these
Answer: (A) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
Explanation: Devices are networked when a process on one can exchange information with a process on the other.
Q73. Which one of the following computer networks is built on the top of another network?
(A) Prior network
(B) Chief network
(C) Prime network
(D) Overlay network
Answer: (D) Overlay network
Explanation: An overlay network (e.g. a P2P network or VPN) is built on top of an existing network.
Q74. In computer network nodes are
(A) the computer that originates the data
(B) the computer that routes the data
(C) the computer that terminates the data
(D) all of these
Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: A node is any device in the network that creates, routes or receives data.
Q75. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
(A) broadcast network
(B) unicast network
(C) multicast network
(D) none of these
Answer: (A) broadcast network
Explanation: In a broadcast network, all machines share a single communication channel and every packet reaches all of them.
Q76. ………. is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
(A) Bridge
(B) Firewall
(C) Router
(D) all of these
Answer: (C) Router
Explanation: A router reads the destination address in each packet and forwards it between networks.
Q77. The structure or format of data is called
(A) Syntax
(B) Semantics
(C) Struct
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Syntax
Explanation: In protocols, syntax defines the structure or format of the data; semantics defines its meaning.
Q78. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ………. transmission.
(A) Automatic
(B) Half-duplex
(C) Full-duplex
(D) Simplex
Answer: (D) Simplex
Explanation: Data flows only one way, from the keyboard to the computer, so the transmission is simplex.
Q79. Which of the following is not a network edge device?
(A) PC
(B) Smartphones
(C) Servers
(D) Switch
Answer: (D) Switch
Explanation: PCs, smartphones and servers are end (edge) devices; a switch is a core network device.
Q80. Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?
(A) Coaxial cable
(B) Twisted pair cable
(C) Optical fibre
(D) Electrical cable
Answer: (C) Optical fibre
Explanation: Optical fibre carries data as light and offers the highest bandwidth and speed.
Q81. Which of the cell pointers indicates that you can fill series?
(A) Doctor’s symbol (Big Plus)
(B) Small thin plus icon
(C) Mouse Pointer with anchor at the tip
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Small thin plus icon
Explanation: The small thin black plus (fill handle) appears at the cell corner and is dragged to fill a series.
Q82. On an Excel sheet the active cell is indicated by
(A) a dotted border
(B) a dark wide border
(C) a blinking border
(D) by italic text
Answer: (B) a dark wide border
Explanation: The active cell is outlined with a thick dark border.
Q83. What term describes explanatory text attached to a cell?
(A) Context
(B) Callout
(C) Comment
(D) Dialog
Answer: (C) Comment
Explanation: A comment (note) attaches explanatory text to a cell, marked by a red triangle in the corner.
Q84. Which of the following will not select all the cells in a document?
(A) Using the Edit – Select All menu
(B) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard
(C) Clicking three times with the right mouse button in the spreadsheet
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) Clicking three times with the right mouse button in the spreadsheet
Explanation: Select All and Ctrl + A select every cell; triple right-clicking does not.
Q85. The default style for new data keyed in a new workbook is
(A) Comma
(B) Normal
(C) Currency
(D) Per cent
Answer: (B) Normal
Explanation: Every cell in a new workbook uses the Normal style by default.
Q86. If you press ………., the cell accepts your typing as its contents.
(A) Tab
(B) Ctrl+Enter
(C) Enter
(D) Alt+Enter
Answer: (C) Enter
Explanation: Pressing Enter confirms the entry and stores the typed text in the cell.
Q87. Which among the following is associated with Excel?
(A) Graphic program
(B) Word Processor
(C) Presentation
(D) Spreadsheet
Answer: (D) Spreadsheet
Explanation: MS Excel is a spreadsheet program.
Q88. Except which of the following functions, a formula with a logical function shows the words “TRUE” or “FALSE” as a result?
(A) NOT
(B) OR
(C) IF
(D) AND
Answer: (C) IF
Explanation: NOT, OR and AND always return TRUE or FALSE; IF returns whatever value you specify for the true or false case.
Q89. Which of the following is not a valid zoom percentage in Excel?
(A) 10
(B) 100
(C) 300
(D) 500
Answer: (D) 500
Explanation: Excel’s zoom range is 10% to 400%, so 500% is not allowed.
Q90. You can check the conditions against ………. when applying conditional formatting.
(A) Cell Value
(B) Formula
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation: A conditional formatting rule can test either the cell value or a formula.
Q91. UNIVAC is
(A) Universal Automatic Computer
(B) Universal Array Computer
(C) Unique Automatic Computer
(D) Unvalued Automatic Computer
Answer: (A) Universal Automatic Computer
Explanation: UNIVAC = UNIVersal Automatic Computer, the first commercial computer in the USA (1951).
Q92. The basic operations performed by a computer are
(A) Arithmetic operation
(B) Logical operation
(C) Storage and relative
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: A computer performs arithmetic, logical and storage/retrieval operations.
Q93. Who is the inventor of “Difference Engine”?
(A) Allen Turing
(B) Charles Babbage
(C) Simur Cray
(D) Augusta Adaming
Answer: (B) Charles Babbage
Explanation: Charles Babbage designed the Difference Engine in the 1820s.
Q94. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers?
(A) First Generation
(B) Second Generation
(C) Third Generation
(D) Fourth Generation
Answer: (D) Fourth Generation
Explanation: Fourth-generation computers (from 1971) use microprocessors (VLSI).
Q95. DOS stands for
(A) Disk Operating System
(B) Disk Operating Session
(C) Digital Operating System
(D) Digital Open System
Answer: (A) Disk Operating System
Explanation: DOS = Disk Operating System.
Q96. ASCII and EBCDIC are the popular character coding systems. What does EBCDIC stand for?
(A) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
(B) Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
(C) Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
(D) Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code
Answer: (A) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Explanation: EBCDIC = Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code, an 8-bit code used on IBM mainframes.
Q97. Who is the father of Computer?
(A) Allen Turing
(B) Simur Cray
(C) Augusta Adaming
(D) Charles Babbage
Answer: (D) Charles Babbage
Explanation: Charles Babbage is called the father of the computer for designing the Analytical Engine.
Q98. Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on
(A) tracks per inch of surface
(B) bits per inch of tracks
(C) disk pack in disk surface
(D) all of these
Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: Capacity depends on track density, recording density (bits per inch) and the number of surfaces/platters in the pack.
Q99. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) Primary and Secondary
(B) Random and Sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) All of these
Answer: (C) ROM and RAM
Explanation: Main (primary) memory is of two types: RAM and ROM.
Q100. A storage area used to store data to compensate for the difference in speed at which the different units can handle data is
(A) Memory
(B) Buffer
(C) Accumulator
(D) Address
Answer: (B) Buffer
Explanation: A buffer temporarily holds data to balance speed differences between devices.
Q101. To preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, we should
(A) double click the motion path
(B) click the show effect button
(C) click the play button
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) click the play button
Explanation: The Play button in the Custom Animation task pane previews the selected effects, including motion paths.
Q102. Which one is a DCL command in SQL?
(A) UPDATE
(B) SELECT
(C) DELETE
(D) GRANT
Answer: (D) GRANT
Explanation: DCL (Data Control Language) has GRANT and REVOKE; the others are DML commands.
Q103. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and move the mouse around the slide?
(A) Moving
(B) Dragging
(C) Monitoring
(D) Highlighting
Answer: (B) Dragging
Explanation: Holding the left button while moving the mouse is called dragging.
Q104. Which of the following SQL commands is used to view data?
(A) CREATE
(B) INSERT
(C) SELECT
(D) UPDATE
Answer: (C) SELECT
Explanation: SELECT retrieves (views) data from tables.
Q105. Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition effects for all slides in a presentation?
(A) Slide
(B) Notes page view
(C) Outline view
(D) Slide sorter view
Answer: (D) Slide sorter view
Explanation: Slide Sorter view shows all slides as thumbnails, so transitions can be applied to all of them at once.
Q106. Math.h is a
(A) Derived data type
(B) Function
(C) Header file
(D) Built-in data type
Answer: (C) Header file
Explanation: math.h is a C header file that declares maths functions such as sqrt() and pow().
Q107. The selected design template can be applied
(A) to current slide only
(B) to all the slides
(C) to all the new presentation you create
(D) all of these
Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: A design template can be applied to the selected slide, to all slides, or set as the default for new presentations.
Q108. The difference between Slide Design and Auto Content Wizard is
(A) Both are same
(B) Auto Content Wizard is just the wizard version of Slide Design
(C) Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides sample content too
(D) Slide Design asks your choice in steps but Auto Content Wizard does not let you make choices
Answer: (C) Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides sample content too
Explanation: Slide Design only applies formatting, while the AutoContent Wizard also adds suggested sample content.
Q109. In which menu can you find features like Slide Design, Slide Layout etc.?
(A) Insert Menu
(B) Format Menu
(C) Tools Menu
(D) Slide Show Menu
Answer: (B) Format Menu
Explanation: In PowerPoint 2003, Slide Design and Slide Layout are under the Format menu.
Q110. Which menu provides you the options like Animation Scheme, Custom Animation, Slide Transition?
(A) Insert Menu
(B) Format Menu
(C) Tools Menu
(D) Slide Show Menu
Answer: (D) Slide Show Menu
Explanation: Animation Schemes, Custom Animation and Slide Transition are under the Slide Show menu in PowerPoint 2003.
Q111. Computer is free from tiresome and boredom. We call it
(A) Accuracy
(B) Reliability
(C) Diligence
(D) Versatility
Answer: (C) Diligence
Explanation: Diligence means the computer can work for long hours without tiring or losing concentration.
Q112. Integrated Circuits (ICs) are related to which generation of computers?
(A) First generation
(B) Second generation
(C) Third generation
(D) Fourth generation
Answer: (C) Third generation
Explanation: Third-generation computers (1964–1971) used integrated circuits.
Q113. CD-ROM is a
(A) Semiconductor memory
(B) Memory register
(C) Magnetic memory
(D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: A CD-ROM is optical storage, read by a laser, so none of the listed types applies.
Q114. A hybrid computer
(A) Resembles digital computer
(B) Resembles analogue computer
(C) Resembles both as digital and analogue computer
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) Resembles both as digital and analogue computer
Explanation: A hybrid computer combines features of both analog and digital computers.
Q115. Which type of computer uses the 8-bit code called EBCDIC?
(A) Minicomputers
(B) Microcomputers
(C) Mainframe computers
(D) Supercomputer
Answer: (C) Mainframe computers
Explanation: EBCDIC was developed by IBM and is used mainly on IBM mainframe computers.
Q116. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from
(A) Primary memory
(B) Control section
(C) External memory
(D) Cache memory
Answer: (B) Control section
Explanation: The control unit (control section) directs the ALU on which operation to perform.
Q117. Chief component of first generation computer was
(A) Transistors
(B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
(C) Integrated Circuits
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
Explanation: First-generation computers (1940s–50s) used vacuum tubes (valves).
Q118. ………. is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the sharing of information between computing devices.
(A) Network
(B) Peripheral
(C) Expansion board
(D) Digital device
Answer: (A) Network
Explanation: A computer network combines hardware and software so that devices can share information.
Q119. 1 Byte = ?
(A) 8 bits
(B) 4 bits
(C) 2 bits
(D) 9 bits
Answer: (A) 8 bits
Explanation: One byte is made of 8 bits.
Q120. Which of the following IC was used in third generation of computers?
(A) SSI
(B) MSI
(C) LSI
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation: Third-generation computers used SSI and MSI chips; LSI/VLSI came in the fourth generation.
Q121. End Key
(A) Moves the cursor to the end of the line
(B) Moves the cursor to the end of the document
(C) Moves the cursor to the end of the paragraph
(D) Moves the cursor to the end of the screen
Answer: (A) Moves the cursor to the end of the line
Explanation: End moves to the end of the current line; Ctrl + End goes to the end of the document.
Q122. “Ctrl + Page Down” is used to
(A) move the cursor one paragraph down
(B) move the cursor one page down
(C) move the cursor one line down
(D) move the cursor one screen down
Answer: (B) move the cursor one page down
Explanation: In MS Word, Ctrl + Page Down moves the cursor to the top of the next page.
Q123. “Ctrl + Down Arrow” is used to
(A) move the cursor one paragraph down
(B) move the cursor one line down
(C) move the cursor one page down
(D) move the cursor one screen down
Answer: (A) move the cursor one paragraph down
Explanation: Ctrl + Down Arrow jumps to the beginning of the next paragraph.
Q124. Which one is a non-linear data structure?
(A) Stack
(B) Queue
(C) Linked list
(D) Tree
Answer: (D) Tree
Explanation: A tree stores data hierarchically; stacks, queues and linked lists are linear.
Q125. “Ctrl + Left Arrow” is used to
(A) move the cursor at the beginning of the line
(B) move the cursor one word left
(C) move the cursor one paragraph up
(D) move the cursor one paragraph down
Answer: (B) move the cursor one word left
Explanation: Ctrl + Left Arrow moves the cursor to the start of the previous word.
Q126. Abstraction means
(A) Summarization
(B) Elimination
(C) Hiding
(D) Casting
Answer: (C) Hiding
Explanation: Abstraction shows only the essential features and hides the background (implementation) details.
Q127. “Ctrl + Page Up” is used to
(A) move the cursor one page up
(B) move the cursor one paragraph up
(C) move the cursor one screen up
(D) move the cursor one line up
Answer: (A) move the cursor one page up
Explanation: In MS Word, Ctrl + Page Up moves the cursor to the top of the previous page.
Q128. Polymorphism is feature of
(A) Procedural programming
(B) SQL
(C) Non-procedural programming
(D) Object Oriented Programming
Answer: (D) Object Oriented Programming
Explanation: Polymorphism (one name, many forms) is a core feature of object-oriented programming.
Q129. “Ctrl + Home” is used to
(A) move the cursor to the beginning of Document
(B) move the cursor to the beginning of Line
(C) move the cursor to the beginning of Paragraph
(D) all of these
Answer: (A) move the cursor to the beginning of Document
Explanation: Ctrl + Home takes the cursor to the very start of the document; Home alone goes to the start of the line.
Q130. “Ctrl + End” is used to
(A) move the cursor to the end of line
(B) move the cursor to the end of document
(C) move the cursor to the end of paragraph
(D) none of these
Answer: (B) move the cursor to the end of document
Explanation: Ctrl + End takes the cursor to the end of the document.
Q131. What is internet?
(A) A single network
(B) A vast collection of different networks
(C) Interconnection of local area networks
(D) none of these
Answer: (B) A vast collection of different networks
Explanation: The Internet is a worldwide network of networks.
Q132. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a
(A) internet architecture board
(B) internet society
(C) internet service provider
(D) none of these
Answer: (C) internet service provider
Explanation: An Internet Service Provider (ISP) provides the connection to the Internet.
Q133. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided by
(A) leased line
(B) digital subscriber line
(C) digital signal line
(D) none of the mentioned
Answer: (B) digital subscriber line
Explanation: DSL sends digital data over ordinary telephone lines.
Q134. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks by
(A) internet exchange point
(B) subscriber end point
(C) isp end point
(D) none of these
Answer: (A) internet exchange point
Explanation: ISPs connect and exchange traffic with each other at Internet Exchange Points (IXPs).
Q135. Which one of the following protocols is not used in internet?
(A) HTTP
(B) DHCP
(C) DNS
(D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: HTTP, DHCP and DNS are all used on the Internet.
Q136. IPv6 address has a size of
(A) 32 bits
(B) 64 bits
(C) 128 bits
(D) 265 bits
Answer: (C) 128 bits
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
Q137. Internet works on
(A) packet switching
(B) circuit switching
(C) both packet switching and circuit switching
(D) none of these
Answer: (A) packet switching
Explanation: The Internet breaks data into packets that are routed independently (packet switching).
Q138. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
(A) Remote procedure call
(B) Internet relay chat
(C) Resource reservation protocol
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) Resource reservation protocol
Explanation: RSVP (Resource Reservation Protocol) works at the transport/network level, not the application layer.
Q139. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?
(A) DHCP
(B) IP
(C) RPC
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) DHCP
Explanation: DHCP automatically assigns IP addresses to clients.
Q140. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
(A) Ethernet
(B) Digital subscriber line
(C) Fiber distributed data interface
(D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation: Ethernet, DSL and FDDI all use media access control, so none of them is the answer.
Q141. Term, Data Structure refers to ………. and interrelationship between them.
(A) organization of data
(B) programming standard
(C) coding
(D) program design
Answer: (A) organization of data
Explanation: A data structure is a way of organizing data elements and the relationships between them.
Q142. In data structure, data may be of ………. types.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (B) 2
Explanation: Data structures are classified into two types: primitive and non-primitive.
Q143. Variables which can be accessed by all modules of the program is called
(A) Global
(B) Auto
(C) Static
(D) Local
Answer: (A) Global
Explanation: Global variables are declared outside all functions and are accessible throughout the program.
Q144. Stack, Queue and Linked list can be implemented using
(A) numeric variable
(B) string variable
(C) logical function
(D) array
Answer: (D) array
Explanation: Stacks, queues and linked lists can all be implemented with arrays.
Q145. Hyperlinks can be created between a Word document and
(A) another word document
(B) a webpage on the www
(C) a webpage on a company Intranet
(D) all of these
Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation: A hyperlink in Word can point to another file, a website or an intranet page.
Q146. You can insert the clip art from
(A) Insert choose Pictures then Clip Art
(B) Choose Clip Art icon from Drawing toolbar
(C) All of these
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) All of these
Explanation: Clip art can be inserted from Insert > Picture > Clip Art or with the Clip Art button on the Drawing toolbar.
Q147. Which of the following cannot be done with document version?
(A) Modifying a version
(B) Deleting a version
(C) Opening a version
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Modifying a version
Explanation: A saved version can be opened or deleted but not modified directly; changes have to be saved as a new version.
Q148. When you drag selected text, you can
(A) Delete text
(B) Link text
(C) Copy text
(D) Move text
Answer: (D) Move text
Explanation: Dragging selected text moves it (holding Ctrl while dragging copies it).
Q149. You can search in a word document for
(A) Formatting
(B) Special characters
(C) Phrases
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: Find in Word can search for words or phrases, formatting and special characters.
Q150. You can add a date to a document by
(A) Inserting a text date
(B) Inserting a date field that will update automatically
(C) Typing the date manually
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: A date can be typed, inserted as fixed text, or inserted as a field that updates automatically.
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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
When was the Bihar STET 2019 Computer Science exam held?
This paper is from the exam held on 2019 in Set H (2:00 PM – 4:30 PM).
How many questions are there in the Bihar STET Computer Science paper?
This paper has 150 MCQs: 50 from Part I: General Knowledge and Other Skills, 100 from Part II: Computer Science.
Is there negative marking in Bihar STET?
No. Bihar STET has no negative marking, so attempt every question.
Which topics are most important for Bihar STET Computer Science?
Networking, DBMS/SQL, Python, OOP, Operating Systems, Data Structures, Digital Electronics and Theory of Computation get the most questions. See the topic-wise table above.
Are these answers official?
No. ExamYaari prepared these answers. Always check against the official answer key released by BSEB.