Bihar STET Computer Science Question Paper 4 November 2025 (Shift 2) with Answers

Looking for the Bihar STET Computer Science question paper 2025? Here is the complete Paper II (Class 11-12) Computer Science paper of the exam held on 4 November 2025 (Shift 2), with the correct answer and a short explanation for every question. All 150 questions are given as text, so you can practise them online, revise topic by topic and get a feel for the real exam pattern.

Note: These answers were prepared and checked by the ExamYaari team. They are not the official BSEB answer key. If you think an answer is wrong, tell us in the comments.

हिंदी में पढ़ें: बिहार STET कंप्यूटर साइंस प्रश्न पत्र 4 नवंबर 2025 (शिफ्ट 2) हिंदी में

Table of Contents

• Exam Overview
• Topic-wise Analysis
• Part I: Computer Science (Q1–100)
• Part II: Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)
• Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)
• More Bihar STET Computer Science Papers
• FAQs

Bihar STET Computer Science 2025: Exam Overview

Exam	Bihar STET 2025 (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)
Conducting Body	Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB)
Paper	Paper II (Class 11-12), Computer Science (Subject Code 226)
Exam Date	4 November 2025
Shift / Time	Shift 2 (2:00 PM – 4:30 PM)
Total Questions	150 MCQs
Part 1	Part I: Computer Science: Q1–100
Part 2	Part II: Teaching Aptitude: Q101–130
Part 3	Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning: Q131–150

Topic-wise Analysis of Computer Science Questions

Here is roughly how the 100 Computer Science questions in this paper are spread across the syllabus. Use it to decide which topics to revise first.

Topic	No. of Questions
Data Structures & Algorithms	14
Computer Networks & Internet	13
Database & SQL	12
Digital Electronics & COA	12
OOP Concepts	8
Theory of Computation	7
Python Programming	7
Operating System	7
Image Processing & Multimedia	3
IoT & Emerging Tech	3
Software Engineering	3
Artificial Intelligence	3
Web Technology & HTML	2
E-commerce & IT Fundamentals	2
Cyber Security & Ethics	2
Computer Fundamentals & History	1
Other Topics	1

Part I: Computer Science (Q1–100)

Q1. Which type of method does not have an implementation in the base class and must be overridden by derived classes?

(A) Virtual method
(B) Abstract method
(C) Sealed method
(D) Static method

Answer: (B) Abstract method
Explanation: An abstract method has no body in the base class; every concrete derived class must override it.

Q2. Which of the following is a DML command in SQL ?

(A) UPDATE
(B) CREATE
(C) ALTER
(D) DROP

Answer: (A) UPDATE
Explanation: UPDATE is a DML command; CREATE, ALTER and DROP are DDL commands.

Q3. For a DFA accepting binary numbers whose decimal equivalent is divisible by 3, what are all the possible remainders?

(A) 0
(B) 0,2
(C) 0,1,2
(D) 0,1,2,3

Answer: (C) 0,1,2
Explanation: When a number is divided by 3 the remainder can only be 0, 1 or 2, so the DFA needs one state for each.

Q4. The concept of monitors was introduced by:

(A) Edsger Dijkstra
(B) Alan Turing
(C) Tim Berners-Lee
(D) Linus Torvalds

Answer: (A) Edsger Dijkstra
Explanation: Monitors were proposed by C.A.R. Hoare and Per Brinch Hansen; of the options given, Dijkstra (who also introduced semaphores) is the closest choice.

Q5. De Morgan’s Theorems are particularly useful in simplifying logic expressions that have a large number of ___________.

(A) Variables
(B) Constants
(C) Terms
(D) Operators

Answer: (A) Variables
Explanation: De Morgan’s theorems break the complement of a sum or product of many variables into simpler terms, so they help most when there are many variables.

Q6. What does SQL stand for?

(A) Structured Query Language
(B) Simple Query Language
(C) Systematic Query Logic
(D) Standard Query Level

Answer: (A) Structured Query Language
Explanation: SQL = Structured Query Language.

Q7. What does the ‘https’ in a web address indicate ?

(A) The website is hosted on a local server
(B) The website is a search engine
(C) The website uses standard HTTP protocol
(D) The website is secure using encryption

Answer: (D) The website is secure using encryption
Explanation: HTTPS = HTTP over SSL/TLS, which means the data is encrypted between the browser and the site.

Q8. What is an entity in DTD?

(A) A reference to an external resource
(B) A mathematical equation
(C) A special XML tag
(D) A function in JavaScript

Answer: (A) A reference to an external resource
Explanation: An entity in a DTD is a named shortcut that refers to text or an external resource, used as &name;.

Q9. The aliasing effect on an image can be reduced using which of the following methods?

(A) By reducing the high-frequency components of image by clarifying the image
(B) By increasing the high-frequency components of image by clarifying the image
(C) By increasing the high-frequency components of image by blurring the image
(D) By reducing the high-frequency components of image by blurring the image

Answer: (D) By reducing the high-frequency components of image by blurring the image
Explanation: Aliasing comes from high-frequency detail, so the image is blurred (low-pass filtered) to reduce those components.

Q10. Which version of IP address is most suitable for IoT?

(A) IP V4
(B) IP V5
(C) IP V6
(D) IP V7

Answer: (C) IP V6
Explanation: IPv6 has a 128-bit address space, large enough to give an address to billions of IoT devices.

Q11. In computer graphics, arrays can be used to store pixel values for images. Which type of array would be suitable for this purpose?

(A) 1-D array
(B) 2-D array
(C) 3-D array
(D) 4-D array

Answer: (B) 2-D array
Explanation: An image is a grid of rows and columns of pixels, so a 2-D array fits naturally.

Q12. Frame design in the Data Link Layer includes:

(A) Deciding the routing path for data packets
(B) Defining the structure of data frames
(C) Assigning IP addresses to devices
(D) Setting the data transmission rate

Answer: (B) Defining the structure of data frames
Explanation: Framing in the Data Link Layer defines the structure of a frame: header, payload and trailer.

Q13. In general, a file is basically a collection of all related______.

(A) Rows & Columns
(B) Database
(C) Fields
(D) Records

Answer: (D) Records
Explanation: A file is a collection of related records.

Q14. Which of the following refers to the level of data abstraction that describes exactly how the data actually stored?

(A) Conceptual Level
(B) Physical Level
(C) File Level
(D) Logical Level

Answer: (B) Physical Level
Explanation: The physical level describes exactly how the data is actually stored on disk.

Q15. What is the full form of SCADA?

(A) Supervisory Control and Document Acquisition
(B) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
(C) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
(D) Supervisory Control and Data Assessment

Answer: (B) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
Explanation: SCADA = Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition.

Q16. Full form of MQTT is

(A) Multi-Queue Telemetry Things
(B) Multiple Queueing Telemetry Things
(C) Message Queue Telemetry Things
(D) Message Queue Telemetry Transport

Answer: (D) Message Queue Telemetry Transport
Explanation: MQTT = Message Queuing Telemetry Transport, a lightweight IoT messaging protocol.

Q17. What is the term for defining multiple methods in a class with the same name but different parameters?

(A) Overriding
(B) Overloading
(C) Inheriting
(D) Inheritance

Answer: (B) Overloading
Explanation: Using the same method name with different parameter lists is method overloading.

Q18. In HTML, we start a comment using :

(A) <!--
(B) !-->
(C) --!>
(D) <--!

Answer: (A) <!--
Explanation: An HTML comment starts with <!-- and ends with -->.

Q19. Consider the statements given below and then choose the correct output from the given options:

D = {'S01': 95, 'S02': 96}
for I in D:
    print(I, end='#')

(A) S01#S02#
(B) 95#96#
(C) S01,95#S02,96#
(D) S01#95#S02#96#

Answer: (A) S01#S02#
Explanation: Looping over a dictionary gives its keys, so the output is S01#S02#.

Q20. In Karnaugh Maps, which of the following terms refers to a group of adjacent cells that can be combined to simplify a logic expression?

(A) Block
(B) Cluster
(C) Pair
(D) Group

Answer: (D) Group
Explanation: Adjacent 1-cells combined in a K-map are called a group (pairs, quads, octets).

Q21. Select the correct option to fill in the blank : A ___________ is an online platform or website where individuals or businesses regularly publish articles/journals, known as posts, on various topics.

(A) Brower
(B) Blog
(C) News Group
(D) Web Server

Answer: (B) Blog
Explanation: A blog is a website where posts are published regularly.

Q22. The dining philosophers problem is an example of a synchronization problem related to:

(A) Process scheduling
(B) Mutual exclusion
(C) Memory allocation
(D) Interrupt handling

Answer: (B) Mutual exclusion
Explanation: In the dining philosophers problem, processes compete for shared resources (forks), which is a mutual exclusion and deadlock problem.

Q23. Inter-process communication (IPC) is a mechanism used for:

(A) Preventing processes from executing concurrently
(B) Allowing processes to run independently without communication
(C) Enabling processes to exchange information and synchronize their actions
(D) Enabling processes to execute in a random order

Answer: (C) Enabling processes to exchange information and synchronize their actions
Explanation: IPC lets processes exchange data and coordinate (synchronise) their actions.

Q24. What is the purpose of Domain Name System Server in networking?

(A) To encrypt data during transmission.
(B) To convert domain names into IP addresses
(C) To regulate network traffic flow.
(D) To establish a secure connection between devices.

Answer: (B) To convert domain names into IP addresses
Explanation: A DNS server translates domain names such as examyaari.com into IP addresses.

Q25. Which programming paradigm focuses on breaking down a program into smaller procedures or functions?

(A) Object-Oriented Programming
(B) Procedural Programming
(C) Functional Programming
(D) Imperative Programming

Answer: (B) Procedural Programming
Explanation: Procedural programming divides a program into procedures (functions).

Q26. Which form of e‐marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from multiple industries, often for MRO materials?

(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) integrated
(D) isolated

Answer: (A) Horizontal
Explanation: A horizontal e-marketplace serves buyers and sellers from many industries, often for MRO (maintenance, repair, operations) items.

Q27. Which Internet Protocol is responsible for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses?

(A) ARP
(B) TCP
(C) ICMP
(D) DNS

Answer: (A) ARP
Explanation: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) finds the MAC address that belongs to a given IP address.

Q28. The Cost Estimation technique that involves expert judgments and consensus is called:

(A) COCOMO
(B) Delphi Method
(C) Waterfall Model
(D) Prototype Model

Answer: (B) Delphi Method
Explanation: The Delphi method reaches an estimate through expert judgement and repeated rounds of consensus.

Q29. Which type of adder is designed to overcome the propagation delay issues in ripple carry adders and generate carry signals more efficiently?

(A) Ripple Carry Adder
(B) Carry Look-Ahead Adder
(C) Binary Adder
(D) Half Adder

Answer: (B) Carry Look-Ahead Adder
Explanation: A carry look-ahead adder generates carries in parallel and avoids the ripple delay.

Q30. Assertion (A): SMS is an acronym for Smart Message Service. Reason (R): SMS is the most common technology for delivering short, concise and important messages quickly. Select the most suitable option.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation: SMS stands for Short Message Service, so A is false; R is a true statement.

Q31. Which of the following conversion is not possible (algorithmically)?

(A) Regular grammar to context-free grammar
(B) Non-deterministic pushdown automata to deterministic pushdown automata
(C) Non-deterministic finite state automata to deterministic finite state automata
(D) Non deterministic Turing machine to deterministic Turing machine

Answer: (B) Non-deterministic pushdown automata to deterministic pushdown automata
Explanation: NPDAs are more powerful than DPDAs, so not every NPDA can be converted to an equivalent DPDA.

Q32. Which among the followings is not a property of knowledge representation?

(A) Representational Verification
(B) Representational Adequacy
(C) Inferential Adaquacy
(D) Inferential Efficiency

Answer: (A) Representational Verification
Explanation: The properties of knowledge representation are representational adequacy, inferential adequacy, inferential efficiency and acquisitional efficiency; ‘representational verification’ is not one of them.

Q33. Which of the following describes e‐commerce?

(A) Doing business electronically
(B) Doing business
(C) Sale of goods
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A) Doing business electronically
Explanation: E-commerce means doing business electronically, over the internet.

Q34. How can you make an asynchronous request to a server in JavaScript?

(A) Using the “async” keyword
(B) Using the “await” keyword
(C) Using the fetch API or XMLHttpRequest
(D) By defining a callback function

Answer: (C) Using the fetch API or XMLHttpRequest
Explanation: An asynchronous HTTP request is made with the fetch API or XMLHttpRequest; async/await and callbacks only help handle the result.

Q35. Evaluate the given postfix expression: 35*6+23*-

(A) 39
(B) 15
(C) -9
(D) -17

Answer: (B) 15
Explanation: 3×5 = 15, then 15+6 = 21, then 2×3 = 6, and 21 − 6 = 15.

Q36. Why do we need Industry 4.0

(A) Detecting Machine failures
(B) Preventing Machine failures
(C) Improving safaty
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: Industry 4.0 helps detect and prevent machine failures and improves safety, using IoT and analytics.

Q37. _________________ uses packet switching technology to carry voice traffic over an IP network where each packet follows best route to reach its destination.

(A) E-mail
(B) HTTP
(C) VoIP
(D) SMTP

Answer: (C) VoIP
Explanation: VoIP (Voice over IP) carries voice as packets over an IP network.

Q38. Delphi and COCOMO are techniques used for estimating:

(A) Software size
(B) Software reliability
(C) Software complexity
(D) Software development cost

Answer: (D) Software development cost
Explanation: Delphi and COCOMO are techniques for estimating software development cost and effort.

Q39. In the Backtracking approach for the 8-Queens problem, once a feasible solution is found, the algorithm:

(A) Stops and returns the solution
(B) Continues searching for more solutions
(C) Iterates through all possibilities
(D) Rearranges the queens to optimize the solution

Answer: (A) Stops and returns the solution
Explanation: When only one solution is needed, backtracking stops and returns as soon as it finds a valid placement of the 8 queens.

Q40. When using the parity bit method, how does the receiver determine if an error has occurred during transmission?

(A) By counting the number of ones in the data
(B) By comparing the parity bit with the data
(C) By performing modulo arithmetic
(D) By comparing the number of ones with the parity bit

Answer: (D) By comparing the number of ones with the parity bit
Explanation: The receiver counts the 1s in the received bits and checks whether that count matches the parity (even or odd) shown by the parity bit.

Q41. The term used to describe the maximum amount of data that can be transmitted over a communication channel in a given time period is:

(A) Bandwidth
(B) Data Rate
(C) Latency
(D) Protocol

Answer: (A) Bandwidth
Explanation: Bandwidth is the maximum amount of data a channel can carry in a given time.

Q42. What will be the output of the following statement?

print(14 % 3**2 * 4)

(A) 16
(B) 64
(C) 20
(D) 256

Answer: (C) 20
Explanation: ** has the highest priority: 3**2 = 9; then % and * from left to right: 14 % 9 = 5, and 5 × 4 = 20. (The capital P in Print is a printing error.)

Q43. In XML, which attribute is used to uniquely identify an element?

(A) id
(B) class
(C) name
(D) tag

Answer: (A) id
Explanation: The id attribute uniquely identifies an element in XML/HTML.

Q44. Which of the following is type 1 language or Type 1 grammar?

(A) Regular grammar/ Regular language
(B) Context Free Grammar / Context Free language
(C) Context Sensitive Grammar / Context Sensitive language
(D) Recursively Enumerable

Answer: (C) Context Sensitive Grammar / Context Sensitive language
Explanation: In the Chomsky hierarchy, Type 1 is context-sensitive grammar/language.

Q45. Which keyword is used to indicate that a class cannot be inherited by other classes?

(A) sealed
(B) final
(C) private
(D) static

Answer: (B) final
Explanation: In Java, a class declared final cannot be inherited (‘sealed’ does the same in C#).

Q46. A universal Turing machine is a______

(A) Single tape Turing machine
(B) Two-tape Turing machine
(C) Reprogrammable Truing machine
(D) All of the above

Answer: (C) Reprogrammable Truing machine
Explanation: A universal Turing machine can simulate any other TM from its description, so it is reprogrammable.

Q47. To convert a Gray Code to its binary equivalent, which technique is commonly used?

(A) Subtraction method
(B) Addition method
(C) Exclusive OR (XOR) operation
(D) Division method

Answer: (C) Exclusive OR (XOR) operation
Explanation: Gray to binary: the MSB stays the same, and each next binary bit = previous binary bit XOR the current Gray bit.

Q48. Assertion (A): CSS is an attribute of the table tag and is used to style tables on a web page. Reason (R): CSS is used to apply styles, such as fonts, colors, and spacing in an HTML document. Select the most suitable option.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation: CSS is not an attribute of the <table> tag, so A is false; R correctly describes what CSS does.

Q49. Which sorting algorithm has a worst-case time complexity of O(n^2) in its basic form?

(A) Quick Sort
(B) Merge Sort
(C) Insertion Sort
(D) Counting Sort

Answer: (A) Quick Sort
Explanation: Basic Quick Sort takes O(n²) in the worst case (e.g. already-sorted input with a bad pivot); Merge Sort is O(n log n).

Q50. Greedy search strategy chooses the node for expansion in ___________

(A) Shallowest
(B) Deepest
(C) The one close to the goal node
(D) Minimum heuristic cost

Answer: (C) The one close to the goal node
Explanation: Greedy best-first search expands the node that appears closest to the goal, i.e. the one with the lowest heuristic value h(n).

Q51. The software developed to detect and remove viruses only is called ______________.

(A) Malware
(B) Antivirus
(C) Spyware
(D) Adware

Answer: (B) Antivirus
Explanation: Antivirus software detects and removes viruses.

Q52. Which of the following refers to the level of data abstraction that describes exactly how the data stored?

(A) Conceptual Level
(B) Physical Level
(C) File Level
(D) Logical Level

Answer: (B) Physical Level
Explanation: The physical level describes how the data is actually stored.

Q53. Which function should be used to get first n rows of a dataframe ?

(A) print(n)
(B) head(n)
(C) get(n)
(D) call(n)

Answer: (B) head(n)
Explanation: df.head(n) returns the first n rows of a Pandas DataFrame.

Q54. Which of the following is a mapped data type?

(A) List
(B) Sets
(C) Dictionary
(D) Boolean

Answer: (C) Dictionary
Explanation: A dictionary maps keys to values, so it is Python’s mapping type.

Q55. The applications of AI includes

(A) Gaming
(B) Expert Systems
(C) ML and DL
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: AI is used in gaming, expert systems, machine learning, deep learning and many other areas.

Q56. The easiest way in which we can transfer control is when the old backup site sends __________ to the old primary.

(A) Redo logs
(B) Primary Logs
(C) Undo Logs
(D) All of the above

Answer: (A) Redo logs
Explanation: To switch control back, the old backup site sends its redo logs to the old primary so it can catch up.

Q57. The minimum number of productions required to produce a language consisting of palindrome strings over ∑={a,b} is

(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 6

Answer: (C) 5
Explanation: S → aSa | bSb | a | b | ε: five productions generate all palindromes over {a, b}.

Q58. WSN stands for?

(A) Wireless Standard Protocol
(B) Wireless Sensor Protocol
(C) Wireless Serial Protocol
(D) Wireless Single Protocol

Answer: (B) Wireless Sensor Protocol
Explanation: WSN actually stands for Wireless Sensor Network; option B is the closest of the options given.

Q59. Auxiliary storage space management in an operating system involves:

(A) Allocating memory for CPU registers
(B) Managing input/output operations between processes and devices
(C) Managing the allocation of memory to processes
(D) Managing the allocation of space on secondary storage devices

Answer: (D) Managing the allocation of space on secondary storage devices
Explanation: Auxiliary storage management means allocating and tracking space on secondary storage such as disks.

Q60. Each ___ represents a particular colour.

(A) Frame
(B) Character
(C) Pixel value
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Pixel value
Explanation: Each pixel value represents a particular colour.

Q61. The quality of ___ remains unchanged even if the size is increased or decreased.

(A) Vector graphics
(B) Illustrations
(C) Photographs
(D) Line images

Answer: (A) Vector graphics
Explanation: Vector graphics are made from mathematical shapes, so they scale without losing quality.

Q62. Software engineering emerged due to:

(A) The decline of computer technology
(B) The need for complex hardware systems
(C) The challenges posed by software development
(D) The focus on hardware-only solutions

Answer: (C) The challenges posed by software development
Explanation: Software engineering arose from the ‘software crisis’, the difficulty of building large, reliable software.

Q63. Which software life cycle model is based on iterative prototyping?

(A) Waterfall model
(B) Spiral model
(C) Agile model
(D) Prototype model

Answer: (B) Spiral model
Explanation: The spiral model develops software in iterative cycles, building prototypes and analysing risk in each loop.

Q64. Which technology offers the highest level of customization for implementing digital logic circuits?

(A) ROM-based design
(B) PLA-based design
(C) FPGA-based design
(D) Gate Array-based design

Answer: (C) FPGA-based design
Explanation: An FPGA can be reprogrammed by the user to implement almost any digital circuit, so it offers the most customisation.

Q65. Stack works on the principle of………………..

(A) Mid Element First
(B) First In First Out
(C) Last In First Out
(D) Last In Last Out

Answer: (C) Last In First Out
Explanation: A stack is LIFO: Last In, First Out.

Q66. SFTP is used for :

(A) Sending Files over the Internet in a secure manner
(B) Sending Mail over the Internet in a secure manner
(C) Video Conferencing
(D) Secure Chat Services

Answer: (A) Sending Files over the Internet in a secure manner
Explanation: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) transfers files securely over a network.

Q67. How are cookies typically stored on a client’s device?

(A) In a plain text file
(B) In a database
(C) In an encrypted format
(D) In the browser’s cache

Answer: (A) In a plain text file
Explanation: Cookies are small text files that the browser stores on the user’s device.

Q68. Which of the following is not considered as a type of e-waste ?

(A) Televisions
(B) Personal Electronic Devices
(C) Scanner and Copier
(D) Newspaper

Answer: (D) Newspaper
Explanation: A newspaper is paper waste, not electronic waste.

Q69. Who is known as the father of AI?

(A) Fisher Ada
(B) Alan Turing
(C) John McCarthy
(D) Allen Newell

Answer: (C) John McCarthy
Explanation: John McCarthy coined the term ‘Artificial Intelligence’ in 1956 and is called the father of AI.

Q70. What are the three main types of DBMSs?

(A) Relational DBMSs, hierarchical DBMSs, and network DBMSs.
(B) Relational DBMSs, object-oriented DBMSs, and NoSQL DBMSs.
(C) Hierarchical DBMSs, network DBMSs, and object-oriented DBMSs.
(D) NoSQL DBMSs, object-oriented DBMSs, and relational DBMSs.

Answer: (A) Relational DBMSs, hierarchical DBMSs, and network DBMSs.
Explanation: The three classic DBMS models are relational, hierarchical and network.

Q71. In Python,………………..module need to be imported for implementing Double Ended Queue.

(A) counter
(B) collections
(C) random
(D) numpy

Answer: (B) collections
Explanation: deque is imported from the collections module: from collections import deque.

Q72. What is the value of the following expression?

3 + 3.00, 3**3.0

(A) [6.0, 27.0]
(B) (6.0, 9.0)
(C) (6, 27)
(D) (6.0, 27.0)

Answer: (D) (6.0, 27.0)
Explanation: 3 + 3.00 = 6.0 and 3**3.0 = 27.0; values separated by a comma form a tuple: (6.0, 27.0).

Q73. What is the primary goal of the Backtracking approach in solving the Hamiltonian Cycle problem?

(A) To find a cycle with the fewest edges
(B) To find a cycle with the lowest weight
(C) To find a cycle that visits every vertex exactly once
(D) To find a cycle with the maximum number of edges

Answer: (C) To find a cycle that visits every vertex exactly once
Explanation: A Hamiltonian cycle visits every vertex exactly once and returns to the start.

Q74. Which statement is used to retrieve data from a database in SQL?

(A) SELECT
(B) UPDATE
(C) DELETE
(D) INSERT

Answer: (A) SELECT
Explanation: SELECT retrieves data from tables.

Q75. The popular method of organizing wireless network topologies are?

(A) Software
(B) Network
(C) Synchronization
(D) Cluster

Answer: (D) Cluster
Explanation: Clustering is the popular way of organising wireless (sensor) network topologies.

Q76. Musa’s Basic Model is used for measuring:

(A) Software complexity
(B) Software reliability
(C) Software performance
(D) Software size

Answer: (B) Software reliability
Explanation: Musa’s Basic Execution Time Model is a software reliability model.

Q77. Which characteristics are taken together in chromaticity?

(A) Hue and Saturation
(B) Hue and Brightness
(C) Saturation, Hue, and Brightness
(D) Saturation and Brightness

Answer: (A) Hue and Saturation
Explanation: Chromaticity combines hue and saturation, without brightness.

Q78. Which of the following can be used to extract or filter the data & information from the data warehouse?

(A) Data redundancy
(B) Data recovery tool
(C) Data mining
(D) Both B and C

Answer: (C) Data mining
Explanation: Data mining extracts useful patterns and information from a data warehouse.

Q79. Which memory management technique uses fixed-sized blocks of memory, allowing processes to be loaded into any available block?

(A) Paging
(B) Segmentation
(C) Virtual memory
(D) Relocation

Answer: (A) Paging
Explanation: Paging divides memory into fixed-size frames, and any free frame can hold any page.

Q80. Which of the following is an extension to the basic model of Turing machine:

(A) Multi tape Turing machine
(B) Multi head Turing machine
(C) Nondeterministic Turing machine
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation: Multi-tape, multi-head and nondeterministic TMs are all extensions of the basic TM (none is more powerful).

Q81. AI is about

(A) Playing games on Computer
(B) Making a machine intelligent
(C) putting human intelligence into computer
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Making a machine intelligent
Explanation: AI is about making machines intelligent.

Q82. Assertion (A): Every object in Python is assigned a unique identity (ID). Reason (R): ID remains the same for the lifetime of that object. Select the most suitable option.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Explanation: Every Python object has a unique id, and that id stays constant during its lifetime; both are true, but R does not explain why IDs are assigned.

Q83. What is the primary purpose of Software Requirements Specification (SRS) documents?

(A) To list the programming languages used
(B) To describe the user interface design
(C) To define the software’s functional and non-functional requirements
(D) To specify the hardware components required

Answer: (C) To define the software’s functional and non-functional requirements
Explanation: An SRS document records the functional and non-functional requirements of the software.

Q84. In BFS, vertices are explored level by level, starting from the:

(A) Deepest level
(B) Shallowest level
(C) Middle level
(D) Highest degree vertex

Answer: (B) Shallowest level
Explanation: BFS starts from the source (level 0) and explores level by level outward.

Q85. Let the word be “automata”. The total number of states required to recognize the word using DFA would be __________

(A) 9 states
(B) 8 states
(C) 10 states
(D) word cannot be recognized using DFA

Answer: (A) 9 states
Explanation: A DFA for the 8-letter string ‘automata’ needs 8 + 1 = 9 states (a dead state would make 10 in a complete DFA).

Q86. In MYSQL, which type of value should not be enclosed within quotation marks ?

(A) DATE
(B) VARCHAR
(C) FLOAT
(D) CHAR

Answer: (C) FLOAT
Explanation: Numeric values such as FLOAT are written without quotes; DATE, CHAR and VARCHAR values need quotes.

Q87. EBCDIC is mainly used in which type of computer systems?

(A) Mainframe computers
(B) Personal computers
(C) Supercomputers
(D) Mobile devices

Answer: (A) Mainframe computers
Explanation: EBCDIC is an 8-bit character code used mainly on IBM mainframes.

Q88. ZigBee architecture has ________layers?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

Answer: (A) 4
Explanation: The ZigBee stack has 4 layers: Physical, MAC, Network and Application.

Q89. What is the purpose of error control in the Data Link Layer?

(A) To prevent unauthorized access
(B) To correct errors in the physical layer
(C) To ensure reliable data transmission
(D) To manage network congestion

Answer: (C) To ensure reliable data transmission
Explanation: Error control (detection and retransmission) ensures reliable delivery of frames.

Q90. Which of the following devices is essential to set up a wired LAN?

(A) Modem
(B) NIC
(C) Repeater
(D) Firewall

Answer: (B) NIC
Explanation: Each computer needs a NIC (Network Interface Card) to connect to a wired LAN.

Q91. Convert the Boolean function F(A, B, C) = Σ(0, 1, 3, 5) to its simplified SOP form.

(A) A + B + C
(B) A’B + AC
(C) A + B + C’
(D) A’B’C

Answer: (D) A’B’C
Explanation: The correct minimal SOP is A′B′ + A′C + B′C, which is not among the options; D (A′B′C) is the only option whose term is a minterm of F, so it is the closest choice.

Q92. The main advantage of the overlay technique in memory management is that it allows:

(A) Processes to be loaded into memory as a whole
(B) Processes to share memory partitions
(C) Large programs to be executed on systems with limited memory
(D) Processes to communicate directly with each other

Answer: (C) Large programs to be executed on systems with limited memory
Explanation: Overlays keep only the needed part of a program in memory, so programs larger than memory can run.

Q93. Process-to-process communication involves communication between:

(A) Different network layers
(B) Different devices on the same network
(C) Devices using different protocols
(D) Processes on different devices

Answer: (D) Processes on different devices
Explanation: Process-to-process (end-to-end) communication, handled by the transport layer, connects processes running on different hosts.

Q94. Which algorithm can be optimized to meet the timing deadlines and rate requirements of continuous media?

(A) Earliest-Deadline-First scheduling
(B) SCAN-EDF scheduling
(C) Both Earliest-Deadline-First scheduling & SCAN-EDF scheduling
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Both Earliest-Deadline-First scheduling & SCAN-EDF scheduling
Explanation: Both EDF and SCAN-EDF disk scheduling can be tuned to meet the deadlines of continuous media.

Q95. A socket is used for:

(A) Physical data transmission
(B) Process-to-process communication
(C) Storing network protocols
(D) Network management

Answer: (B) Process-to-process communication
Explanation: A socket (IP address + port) is an endpoint for process-to-process communication.

Q96. Which one is not an encryption Technique?

(A) AES
(B) DES
(C) RSA
(D) FTP

Answer: (D) FTP
Explanation: FTP is a file-transfer protocol; AES, DES and RSA are encryption algorithms.

Q97. Assertion (A): It becomes difficult to update and maintain a website’s design using CSS. Reason (R): CSS allows web developers to separate the presentation layer (styles and layout) from the content layer (HTML). Select the most suitable option.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Explanation: CSS actually makes a site easier to update, so A is false; R is true.

Q98. How many inputs does a full -adder circuit have for each individual binary digit being added or subtracted?

(A) 1 input
(B) 2 inputs
(C) 3 inputs
(D) 4 inputs

Answer: (C) 3 inputs
Explanation: A full adder has 3 inputs: A, B and Carry-in.

Q99. In which year did Intel release the first x86 microprocessor, the 8086, which laid the foundation for the x86 architecture widely used in personal computers?

(A) 1971
(B) 1981
(C) 1986
(D) 1991

Answer: (B) 1981
Explanation: The 8086 was actually released in 1978, so none of the options is exact; 1981 (the year the IBM PC brought x86 to personal computers) is the closest option.

Q100. A threaded binary tree is a binary tree in which:

(A) Each node has two children
(B) Each node has at most one child
(C) Each node is connected to its parent
(D) Each node has a thread connecting it to its predecessor or successor

Answer: (D) Each node has a thread connecting it to its predecessor or successor
Explanation: In a threaded binary tree, NULL child pointers are replaced by threads to the in-order predecessor or successor.

Part II: Teaching Aptitude (Q101–130)

Q101. Affective domain focuses on adoption of a value system as a part of life style in

(A) Responding
(B) Valuing
(C) Organization
(D) Characterization

Answer: (D) Characterization
Explanation: At the highest level of the affective domain, Characterization, values become part of a person’s lifestyle.

Q102. “Society determines the roles of male and female.” This statement articulates-

(A) Gender as an inherent construct
(B) Gender as a hereditary endowment
(C) Gender as an intuitive construct
(D) Gender as a social construct

Answer: (D) Gender as a social construct
Explanation: Roles assigned to males and females by society show that gender is a social construct.

Q103. The affective domain was classified by

(A) Benjamin S. Bloom
(B) Simpson
(C) Krathwhol
(D) Both A and C

Answer: (D) Both A and C
Explanation: The affective domain taxonomy (1964) was developed by Krathwohl, Bloom and Masia.

Q104. A teacher should employ classroom management strategies which focus on:

(A) controlling the class through rigid rules
(B) expecting same behaviour from all children
(C) making students abide to all rules without questioning
(D) giving ample opportunities for self reflection

Answer: (D) giving ample opportunities for self reflection
Explanation: Good classroom management gives children chances to reflect on their own behaviour.

Q105. Which domain of learning objectives is not being evaluated through our present system of examination:

(A) Affective
(B) Cognitive
(C) Psychomotor
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Affective
Explanation: Our exams mainly test the cognitive domain; attitudes and values (affective domain) are hardly assessed.

Q106. Individualized Education Programme is planned from the perspective of-

(A) Special Education Programme
(B) Child-centered Education Programme
(C) Open School Education Programme
(D) e-Learning Education Programme

Answer: (A) Special Education Programme
Explanation: An IEP is planned for children with special needs as part of special education.

Q107. For the change in the behaviour of the children, the most effective method is

(A) affectionate advice
(B) reward
(C) punishment
(D) expulsion from house

Answer: (A) affectionate advice
Explanation: Affectionate advice brings lasting change in children’s behaviour; punishment does not.

Q108. Which educational psychologist believed in the fact that ‘All children have the potential to learn’?

(A) Friedrich Frobel
(B) John Dewey
(C) Johann Friedrich Herbart
(D) Maria Montessori

Answer: (D) Maria Montessori
Explanation: Maria Montessori believed every child has the potential to learn when given the right environment.

Q109. The drawback of micro teaching is –

(A) Not successful in real classroom conditions
(B) Lack of supervision is found
(C) No room for feedback
(D) Longer duration of study

Answer: (A) Not successful in real classroom conditions
Explanation: Micro-teaching is practised in an artificial setting, so the skills may not carry over to a real classroom.

Q110. Which of the following is more important for keeping the good mental health of students?

(A) Provision for curricula activities
(B) Freedom of expression
(C) Variety of interests
(D) Teacher’s role and school environment

Answer: (D) Teacher’s role and school environment
Explanation: The teacher’s role and the school environment matter most for students’ mental health.

Q111. When a teacher should present a video clip in the class?

(A) During explaining the content
(B) After explaining the content
(C) Before explaining the content
(D) None of these

Answer: (A) During explaining the content
Explanation: A video clip works best during the explanation, to support and illustrate the content.

Q112. Component of curriculum is:

(A) Teaching strategies
(B) Objectives
(C) Evaluation
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation: Objectives, content, teaching strategies and evaluation are all components of the curriculum.

Q113. The basic requirement of teaching efficiency is-

(A) Mastery on teaching skills
(B) Mastery over use of different techniques of teaching.
(C) Mastery over appropriate use of media and technology in teaching.
(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation: Teaching efficiency needs mastery of teaching skills, techniques and the use of media.

Q114. Which of the following activity is considered in the post-active phase of teaching?

(A) distribution of teaching strategies
(B) changing the strategies in terms of evidences gathered
(C) diagnosis of the learners
(D) sequencing the elements of content for presentation

Answer: (B) changing the strategies in terms of evidences gathered
Explanation: In the post-active phase, the teacher reviews evidence from evaluation and changes strategies.

Q115. An appropriate verb for an objective written to reflect assessment in the psychomotor domain of learning would be:

(A) Acknowledge
(B) Explain
(C) Relates
(D) Assembles

Answer: (D) Assembles
Explanation: ‘Assembles’ describes a physical skill, so it is a psychomotor verb.

Q116. One of the critiques of standardized tests has been that-

(A) they represent largely the mainstream culture and are therefore biased
(B) their language is difficult to understand
(C) the tests cannot be administered on large populations
(D) they do not give a clear picture of a child’s ability

Answer: (A) they represent largely the mainstream culture and are therefore biased
Explanation: Standardised tests are criticised for reflecting mainstream culture, which can bias them against other groups.

Q117. All except ______ are major components of classroom process.

(A) Evaluating teacher’s performance
(B) Assessment of student’s learning
(C) Expected learning outcomes
(D) Classroom transaction

Answer: (A) Evaluating teacher’s performance
Explanation: The classroom process includes learning outcomes, classroom transaction and assessment of learning; evaluating the teacher is not a core component.

Q118. The evaluation used to improve the contents during curriculum development is:

(A) Summative evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Formative evaluation
Explanation: Formative evaluation is done during development, to improve the curriculum.

Q119. Who developed inductive approach in science teaching?

(A) Aristotle
(B) Bruner
(C) Gagne
(D) Francis Bacon

Answer: (D) Francis Bacon
Explanation: Francis Bacon promoted the inductive method (from observations to generalisations).

Q120. As a planner, the teacher must

(A) encourage classroom and panel discussion
(B) be guidance minded
(C) first decide what changes should take place in the learner
(D) observe students’ reactions skillfully

Answer: (C) first decide what changes should take place in the learner
Explanation: As a planner, the teacher first decides what changes (objectives) should take place in the learner.

Q121. The Socratic method is known as

(A) Lecture demonstration method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Inquiry method
(D) Question- Answer method

Answer: (D) Question- Answer method
Explanation: The Socratic method teaches through questions and answers.

Q122. An outline-of the topics of a subject which covered in specific time is called:

(A) Programme
(B) Syllabus
(C) Curriculum
(D) Course

Answer: (B) Syllabus
Explanation: A syllabus is an outline of the topics to be covered in a fixed period.

Q123. As a facilitator, the teacher must be

(A) dominating
(B) short-tempered
(C) autocratic
(D) warm, understanding and self-controlling

Answer: (D) warm, understanding and self-controlling
Explanation: A facilitator should be warm, understanding and self-controlled.

Q124. Delivering lectures about key concepts that lead to student discussions is an example of

(A) Engage
(B) Elaborate
(C) Explore
(D) Explain

Answer: (D) Explain
Explanation: In the 5E model, a teacher explaining key concepts belongs to the Explain stage.

Q125. The hypothesis underlying team teaching is

(A) Teachers feel bore while working alone
(B) Teachers are not competent
(C) The best teachers in schools are shared by more students
(D) The single teacher cannot control the class

Answer: (C) The best teachers in schools are shared by more students
Explanation: Team teaching assumes that the best teachers can be shared by more students.

Q126. At the highest level of hierarchy is

(A) Understanding
(B) Application
(C) Evaluation
(D) Analysis

Answer: (C) Evaluation
Explanation: In Bloom’s original taxonomy, evaluation is the highest level, above analysis, application and understanding.

Q127. In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the form of reasoning at one stage becomes the ______ at the next stage:

(A) content.
(B) structure.
(C) process.
(D) dialectical opposite

Answer: (A) content.
Explanation: For Piaget, the reasoning of one stage becomes the content that the next stage’s reasoning works on.

Q128. The best method to inspire students for hard labour is

(A) one should himself do hard labour seeing which students will be inspired spontaneously
(B) laborious students should be rewarded
(C) a lecture about the importance of hard labour be delivered
(D) the example of success through hard labour be presented

Answer: (A) one should himself do hard labour seeing which students will be inspired spontaneously
Explanation: Students are best inspired when the teacher works hard and sets an example.

Q129. What is the best way for a teacher to resolve the problems in a class?

(A) Ask for other teacher’s opinion
(B) Depends on one’s own opinion
(C) Think on suggestions offered by the children and implement the good ones
(D) Use the view that Principal gives

Answer: (C) Think on suggestions offered by the children and implement the good ones
Explanation: Listening to students’ suggestions and using the good ones builds participation and solves problems.

Q130. Which of the following would you use to shape the habits?

(A) Indoctrination
(B) Teaching
(C) Training
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Training
Explanation: Habits are formed through training (repeated practice).

Part III: General Awareness & Reasoning (Q131–150)

Q131. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements : 1.The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. 2.During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. 3. Mubammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only

Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation: The first Mongol invasion came under Iltutmish (1221), so 1 is wrong; under Alauddin Khalji, Qutlugh Khwaja besieged Delhi (1299), so 2 is right; 3 is not correct.

Q132. Which of the following is not prism?

(A) cuboid
(B) circle
(C) Pentagonal Prism
(D) cube

Answer: (B) circle
Explanation: A circle is a 2-D figure; a cuboid, a cube and a pentagonal prism are all prisms.

Q133. Which of the following statements with reference to surface inversion of temperature is/are correct? 1. It causes instability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. 2. This inversion commonly lasts for a few hours until the Sun comes up.

(A) 1 Only
(B) 2 Only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (B) 2 Only
Explanation: A surface inversion makes the lower air stable, not unstable, so 1 is wrong; it usually lasts until the Sun warms the ground, so 2 is right.

Q134. Pointing to a boy, Neha said, “He is the son of the only child of my grandfather.” How is the boy related to Neha?

(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Son in law

Answer: (A) Brother
Explanation: The only child of Neha’s grandfather is Neha’s parent, so the boy is her brother.

Q135. Asia’s first underground Hydel Project is located in which of the following States in India?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (B) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: The Shanan (Jogindernagar) project in Himachal Pradesh is described as Asia’s first underground hydel project.

Q136. What is the national animal of America ?

(A) Tiger and Bald Eagle
(B) Bald Eagle and the American Bison
(C) American Bison and Yak
(D) Golden eagle and Bison

Answer: (B) Bald Eagle and the American Bison
Explanation: The USA’s national animal is the American bison and its national bird and emblem is the bald eagle.

Q137. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to

(A) Generate additional economic activity throughout the country
(B) Beautify suburban areas
(C) Upgrade the facilities in the countryside
(D) Promote investment from domestic and foreign sources

Answer: (D) Promote investment from domestic and foreign sources
Explanation: SEZs are set up to attract domestic and foreign investment, boost exports and create jobs.

Q138. __________ is the ability to do work.

(A) energy
(B) force
(C) energy and force both
(D) none of these

Answer: (A) energy
Explanation: Energy is the capacity (ability) to do work.

Q139. Where is the old and over 2 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’, which attracts tourists from all over the country?

(A) Nilgiri
(B) Krishna delta
(C) Palk straits
(D) Malabar coast

Answer: (C) Palk straits
Explanation: The Pamban Bridge links Rameswaram island to the mainland across the Palk Strait.

Q140. What is a common effect of inflation on purchasing power?

(A) Increase in purchasing power
(B) Decrease in purchasing power
(C) No effect on purchasing power
(D) Increase in savings

Answer: (B) Decrease in purchasing power
Explanation: Inflation raises prices, so the same money buys less: purchasing power falls.

Q141. Choose the correct option instead of the question mark in the given question. Mango : Fruit :: Onion : ?

(A) Root
(B) Fruit
(C) Flower
(D) Stem

Answer: (D) Stem
Explanation: A mango is a fruit; an onion is a modified underground stem (bulb).

Q142. In the given number series what number will come in place of the Question Mark Symbol. 340, 316, 286, 250, ?

(A) 280
(B) 249
(C) 208
(D) 148

Answer: (C) 208
Explanation: The differences are −24, −30, −36, −42, so 250 − 42 = 208.

Q143. What did Gandhi do to break the salt law?

(A) Dandi March
(B) Ahmedabad March
(C) Champaran March
(D) All

Answer: (A) Dandi March
Explanation: Gandhi broke the salt law with the Dandi March (1930).

Q144. If in a certain code, ‘ABCD’ is written as 24 and ‘EFGH’ is written as 1680, then how is ‘IJKL’ written in that code?

(A) 11880
(B) 11240
(C) 7920
(D) 5940

Answer: (A) 11880
Explanation: Multiply the letter positions: ABCD = 1×2×3×4 = 24, EFGH = 5×6×7×8 = 1680, so IJKL = 9×10×11×12 = 11880.

Q145. What is the remainder when 2765 is divided by 6?

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3

Answer: (A) 5
Explanation: 2765 = 6 × 460 + 5, so the remainder is 5.

Q146. The number of vertices (V) , edges (E) and faces (F) of a polyhedron are respectively 10,15 and x. Then, the value of (3x-12) is :

(A) 9
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 7

Answer: (A) 9
Explanation: Euler’s formula F = 2 − V + E = 2 − 10 + 15 = 7, so 3×7 − 12 = 9.

Q147. What are triangular numbers?

(A) The numbers whose dot pattern can be arranged in triangles
(B) The numbers which form a triangle on adding
(C) The numbers which have three digits
(D) The numbers which do not give perfect squares on adding

Answer: (A) The numbers whose dot pattern can be arranged in triangles
Explanation: Triangular numbers (1, 3, 6, 10…) are those whose dots can be arranged in a triangle.

Q148. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. The Vernacular Press Act was passed in……….on the lines of the Irish Press Act.

(A) 1878
(B) 1968
(C) 1887
(D) 1778

Answer: (A) 1878
Explanation: Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878.

Q149. 6 persons are sitting in two rows of 3 each, facing each other. E does not sit at any of the ends. D is second to the left of F. C is a neighbour of E and sits diagonally opposite to D. B is a neighbour of F. Who will be in front of B?

(A) A
(B) E
(C) C
(D) D

Answer: (B) E
Explanation: D and F sit at the two ends of one row with B in the middle; C sits diagonally opposite D, so E takes the middle of the other row, directly in front of B.

Q150. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. B, C, E, H, L, ?

(A) P
(B) O
(C) N
(D) Q

Answer: (D) Q
Explanation: The gaps grow +1, +2, +3, +4, +5: B, C, E, H, L, Q.

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