BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies Question Paper (Class 6–10 (Computer, Music/Arts), 22 July 2024) with Official Answers

BPSC TRE 3.0 General Studies question paper (Class 6–10 (Computer, Music/Arts), 22 July 2024, 2nd sitting): all 40 GS questions in English with BPSC’s official final answers and a short explanation for each.

These questions are from the Class 6–10 Computer booklet (Series I). The Computer and Music/Arts papers in this sitting had the same GS part. Answers follow BPSC’s revised final key of 6 November 2024, which changed three GS answers (Q42, Q57, Q69) from the earlier key.

BPSC TRE 4.0 is now open for 33,320 teacher posts. General Studies counts towards your merit whatever your subject, so it’s a good place to start practising.

Table of Contents

• Exam overview
• BPSC TRE 4.0 at a glance
• GS questions with answers (Q31–70)
• How to prepare for GS
• FAQs

BPSC TRE 3.0 Class 6–10 (Computer, Music/Arts): Exam Overview

Exam	BPSC School Teacher (Re-)Examination, TRE 3.0 (Advt. No. 22/2024)
Conducting body	Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC)
Class level	Class 6–10 (Computer, Music/Arts)
Exam date	22 July 2024, 2nd sitting
General Studies	40 questions (Q31–70)
Options	Five per question; (D) is usually ‘More than one of the above’ and (E) ‘None of the above’
Answers on this page	BPSC Revised Final Answer Key (6 November 2024), booklet Series I

BPSC TRE 4.0 at a Glance

Advertisement	No. 15/2026 (replaces Advt. 14/2026)
Total posts	33,320
Last date to apply	3 November 2026 (fee by 2 November)
Exam date	Not announced yet

BPSC TRE 3.0 GS Questions with Answers (Q31–70)

Question numbers are as in the original booklet (Series I). Answers follow BPSC’s final answer key; the explanations are written by the ExamYaari team.

Q31. The area of a circle is 36π. If it is divided into six equal parts, then what should be length of arc of each part?

(A) π
(B) 2π
(C) 4π
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) 2π
Explanation: πr² = 36π gives r = 6, so the circumference is 2π × 6 = 12π. Each of the six equal arcs is 12π ÷ 6 = 2π.

Q32. If x/y + y/x = 2, then what is the value of {(x² + y²)/(xy + y²)}?

(A) 0 (zero)
(B) 1/4
(C) 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 1
Explanation: x/y + y/x = 2 means x² + y² = 2xy, i.e. (x − y)² = 0, so x = y. Then (x² + y²)/(xy + y²) = 2x²/2x² = 1.

Q33. If 20% of (x + y) is equal to 50% of (x − y), what is (x : y)?

(A) 7 : 3
(B) 3 : 7
(C) 7 : 5
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 7 : 3
Explanation: 0.2(x + y) = 0.5(x − y) gives 2x + 2y = 5x − 5y, so 3x = 7y and x : y = 7 : 3.

Q34. While selling a watch a shopkeeper gives a discount of 5% on its marked price. If he gives a discount of 10%, then he earns ₹25 loss as profit. What is the marked price of the watch?

(A) ₹700
(B) ₹500
(C) ₹300
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) ₹500
Explanation: The extra 5% discount costs him ₹25 of profit, so 5% of the marked price = ₹25 and the marked price = ₹500.

Q35. A student got twice as many questions wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 questions in all, what is the number of questions solved by him correctly?

(A) 24
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) 16
Explanation: If he got x right, he got 2x wrong, so 3x = 48 and x = 16.

Q36. If (x² − 3x + 2) is a factor of (x⁴ − Px² + Q) then what are the values of P and Q respectively?

(A) 5, 4
(B) −5, 4
(C) 5, −4
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 5, 4
Explanation: x² − 3x + 2 = (x − 1)(x − 2), so x = 1 and x = 2 must make x⁴ − Px² + Q zero: 1 − P + Q = 0 and 16 − 4P + Q = 0. Solving gives P = 5, Q = 4.

Q37. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, then what will be percentage reduction in its area?

(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 75
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 75
Explanation: Halving the circumference halves the radius, so the area becomes (1/2)² = 1/4 of the original, a 75% reduction.

Q38. If 1.5 P = 0.04Q, then what is the value of ((Q − P)/(Q + P))?

(A) 73/77
(B) 77/33
(C) 22/75
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 73/77
Explanation: P/Q = 0.04/1.5 = 2/75, so take P = 2, Q = 75. Then (Q − P)/(Q + P) = 73/77.

Q39. Virus are essentially made up of

(A) Proteins & Nucleic acid
(B) Proteins & Lipids
(C) Starch, Proteins & Carbohydrates
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Proteins & Nucleic acid
Explanation: A virus is basically nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) wrapped in a protein coat (capsid).

Q40. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into ammeter by placing

(A) High resistance in series
(B) High resistance in parallel
(C) Low resistance in parallel
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Low resistance in parallel
Explanation: An ammeter is made by connecting a low resistance (shunt) in parallel with the galvanometer, so most current bypasses the coil. A high series resistance makes a voltmeter instead.

Q41. Twinkling of stars is on account of

(A) Small size of stars
(B) Large distance of stars & fluctuations in air density
(C) Large distance of stars & air storms
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Large distance of stars & fluctuations in air density
Explanation: Stars are so far away that they act as point sources; changing density of air layers keeps bending (refracting) their light, so they appear to twinkle.

Q42. Ammonia compound which can sublime on heating is

(A) (NH₄)₂SO₄
(B) NH₄Cl
(C) NH₄NO₃
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: BPSC’s revised final key gives (D), changing it from (B) in the earlier final key. Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) is the standard textbook example of a substance that sublimes on heating; the revised key treats more than one option as correct.

Q43. Which of the following mediums will exhibit maximum velocity of sound

(A) Water
(B) Air
(C) Steel
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Steel
Explanation: Sound travels fastest in solids: about 5,000–6,000 m/s in steel, about 1,500 m/s in water and about 343 m/s in air.

Q44. Which of the following fuels show highest calorific value?

(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Petrol
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Petrol
Explanation: BPSC’s final key gives petrol. Petrol, kerosene and diesel all have calorific values close to 45,000 kJ/kg (NCERT lists all three at about this value); petrol is marked as the highest.

Q45. The penetrating power of X-ray increases with

(A) Increase in intensity
(B) Increase in frequency of X-rays
(C) Increase of pressure in X-ray tube
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Increase in frequency of X-rays
Explanation: Higher frequency (shorter wavelength) X-rays carry more energy per photon and are ‘harder’, so they penetrate more. Intensity changes only the number of photons.

Q46. When sun rays enter a glass prism they are

(A) Deviated but not dispersed
(B) Dispersed but not deviated
(C) Both deviated and dispersed
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Both deviated and dispersed
Explanation: White sunlight is bent (deviated) by the prism, and since each colour bends by a different amount, it also splits into a spectrum (dispersion).

Q47. In which country the ASEAN India Grassroots Innovation Forum (AIGIF) was launched in Nov. 2023?

(A) Vietnam
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Malaysia
Explanation: The first ASEAN-India Grassroots Innovation Forum was launched in Langkawi, Malaysia, in November 2023.

Q48. In April 2024, Abdel Fattah al-Sisi has been re-elected for a third six – year term as the President of which country?

(A) Yemen
(B) Jordan
(C) Egypt
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Egypt
Explanation: Abdel Fattah al-Sisi is the President of Egypt; he was sworn in for a third six-year term in April 2024.

Q49. Which country has become the first nation to adopt the ‘Jan Aushadhi Scheme’ of India in February 2024?

(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Mauritius
(C) Nepal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Mauritius
Explanation: Mauritius became the first country to adopt India’s Jan Aushadhi scheme; its first Jan Aushadhi Kendra opened in February 2024.

Q50. Which countries continue to host the majority of Afghan refugees globally, providing them with access to health and education services?

(A) Turkey and Syria
(B) Iran and Pakistan
(C) Lebanon and Egypt
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Iran and Pakistan
Explanation: According to UNHCR, Afghanistan’s neighbours Iran and Pakistan host most of the world’s Afghan refugees.

Q51. Which state government has set up proposals for the design, development and operation of India’s first AI City in 2024?

(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: In 2024 the Uttar Pradesh government invited proposals to develop India’s first AI City, in Lucknow.

Q52. Which company has become the third-largest silver producer globally according to 2024 World Silver Survey?

(A) Hindustan Zinc Limited
(B) Silver Zinc Limited
(C) Sunrise Zinc Corporation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Hindustan Zinc Limited
Explanation: The World Silver Survey 2024 ranked Vedanta group’s Hindustan Zinc Limited as the world’s third-largest silver producer.

Q53. What initiative did India announce at the G20 summit to take ethanol blending with petrol globally to 20 percent?

(A) Global Climate Action Plan
(B) Green Energy Revolution
(C) Global Biofuel Alliance
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Global Biofuel Alliance
Explanation: At the New Delhi G20 summit (September 2023) India launched the Global Biofuel Alliance and urged taking ethanol blending with petrol to 20% globally.

Q54. Which ferry craft was inducted into the Indian Navy at the end of December 2023?

(A) Manjula
(B) Manohar
(C) Mangal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Manjula
Explanation: BPSC’s final key gives ‘Manjula’, the ferry craft inducted into the Indian Navy in late December 2023.

Q55. Very high – intensity Earthquake Zone include –

(A) Pashchim Champaran and Purab Champaran
(B) Madhubani and Supaul
(C) Purnea and Kathiar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Madhubani and Supaul
Explanation: In Bihar, the very-high-risk seismic Zone V covers districts along the Nepal border in north-east Bihar, such as Madhubani and Supaul.

Q56. Smallest Bird sanctuary in Bihar in terms of geographical area is –

(A) Barela Jheel Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
(B) Nakti Dam Bird Sanctuary
(C) Nagi Dam Bird Sanctuary
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Barela Jheel Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
Explanation: Barela Jheel Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary in Vaishali (about 2 km²) is smaller than Nakti Dam (about 3.3 km²) and Nagi Dam (about 7.9 km²) sanctuaries.

Q57. The tributary of Ganga having the longest distance in Bihar is-

(A) Sone
(B) Kosi
(C) Burhi Gandak
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Burhi Gandak
Explanation: BPSC’s revised final key gives Burhi Gandak (changed from Kosi in the earlier final key). The Burhi Gandak flows about 320 km entirely within Bihar, a longer course in the state than the Kosi or the Sone.

Q58. The river having the largest basin area is –

(A) Pennar
(B) Brahmani
(C) Sabarmati
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Pennar
Explanation: Pennar’s basin (about 55,000 km²) is larger than the Brahmani’s (about 39,000 km²) and the Sabarmati’s (about 21,700 km²).

Q59. The second longest length of international boundary is shared by India with –

(A) Pakistan
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) China
Explanation: India’s longest land border is with Bangladesh (about 4,096 km), followed by China (about 3,488 km) and Pakistan (about 3,323 km).

Q60. The Antecedent drainage pattern of river systems found in-

(A) The Punjab Himalayas
(B) The Kumaun Himalayas
(C) The Deccan Plateau Region
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Antecedent rivers are older than the Himalaya and cut deep gorges as it rose; examples are the Sutlej and Indus in the Punjab Himalaya and the Kali and Alaknanda in the Kumaun Himalaya. So both (A) and (B) apply.

Q61. The State with the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries (2019) is-

(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Maharashtra
Explanation: BPSC’s final key gives Maharashtra, which had more wildlife sanctuaries than Karnataka or Madhya Pradesh in 2019 data.

Q62. The State producing the highest solar power generation in 2022-23 is –

(A) Gujarat
(B) Karnataka
(C) Rajasthan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Rajasthan
Explanation: Rajasthan led India in solar power capacity and generation in 2022-23.

Q63. Which Indian leader used the ‘Safety – Valve theory’ to attack the moderates in the congress?

(A) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation: Lala Lajpat Rai, writing in Young India (1916), used the idea that Congress was a ‘safety valve’ for British rule to criticise the Moderates.

Q64. When did the boycott of British goods and promotion of Swadeshi Become the two pillars during which movement?

(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Rowlatt Satyagraha movement
(C) Quit India movement
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Partition of Bengal
Explanation: The Swadeshi movement against the Partition of Bengal (1905) was built on boycott of British goods and promotion of Swadeshi.

Q65. What were the major gains of the Non-cooperation movement?

(A) General Awakening in the masses
(B) Disbelief in British system of government
(C) Faith in the congress for the attainment of Swaraj
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) awakened the masses, weakened faith in British rule and built trust in the Congress, so more than one option is correct.

Q66. Who defined socialism in a scientific manner ‘the abolition of capitalism and class domination’?

(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Leaders of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
(C) The Extremist leaders of congress
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Leaders of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
Explanation: Revolutionaries of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, such as Bhagat Singh, defined socialism scientifically as the abolition of capitalism and class domination.

Q67. Who led a delegation to London to meet secretary of state for India, Montagu, to demand female franchise?

(A) Sarla Devi Chaudhurani
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The 1917 women’s delegation that met Montagu to demand voting rights for women was led by Sarojini Naidu, who is not among the options.

Q68. Which event was “a glorious event in the history of the freedom movement in India” an acceptable plan by both the congress and Muslim League?

(A) Cripps Mission plan
(B) Simon Commission plan
(C) Cabinet Mission plan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Cabinet Mission plan
Explanation: The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) was initially accepted by both the Congress and the Muslim League.

Q69. Who firmly believed that a happy prosperous national existence could be built-up on the basis of capitalist social system?

(A) Gandhiji
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: BPSC’s revised final key gives Jawaharlal Nehru (changed from Gandhiji in the earlier final key). This is a surprising answer, since Nehru is usually known as a socialist; the official key is followed here.

Q70. Who wrote, ‘The Indian Struggle’, a book as his autobiography?

(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: ‘The Indian Struggle’ was written by Subhas Chandra Bose, who is not among the options.

How to Prepare for BPSC TRE General Studies

• Work out every maths question on paper. (E) None of the above is often the answer, so check your result rather than picking the closest option.
• Read options (D) and (E) carefully. They are real answers in TRE, not fillers.
• Give extra time to Bihar: districts, crops, and Bihar’s role in the freedom struggle.
• Revise current affairs from the 12 months before your exam.
• Practise timed mock tests on the ExamYaari app.

More BPSC TRE Resources

• All BPSC TRE General Studies question papers
• यही प्रश्न पत्र हिंदी में देखें
• BPSC TRE 4.0 Recruitment 2026
• BPSC TRE 4.0 Syllabus 2026

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